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Question 1:

Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines some heuristics for determining code review in “A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews”. Which of the following heuristics increase the application\’s attack surface? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Code written in C/C /assembly language

B. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface

C. Code that changes frequently

D. Anonymously accessible code

E. Code that runs by default

F. Code that runs in elevated context

Correct Answer: BDEF

Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines the following heuristics for determining code review in “A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews”: Old code: Newer code provides better understanding of software security and has lesser number of vulnerabilities. Older code must be checked deeply. Code that runs by default: It must have high quality, and must be checked deeply than code that does not execute by default. Code that runs by default increases the application\’s attack surface. Code that runs in elevated context: It must have higher quality. Code that runs in elevated privileges must be checked deeply and increases the application\’s attack surface. Anonymously accessible code: It must be checked deeply than code that only authorized users and administrators can access, and it increases the application\’s attack surface. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface: It must be checked deeply for security vulnerabilities and increases the application\’s attack surface. Code written in C/C /assembly language: It is prone to security vulnerabilities, for example, buffer overruns. Code with a history of security vulnerabilities: It includes additional vulnerabilities except concerted efforts that are required for removing them. Code that handles sensitive data: It must be checked deeply to ensure that data is protected from unintentional disclosure. Complex code: It includes undiscovered errors because it is more difficult to analyze complex code manually and programmatically. Code that changes frequently: It has more security vulnerabilities than code that does not change frequently.


Question 2:

Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for a garment company in the United States. A project has been assigned to him to investigate a case of a disloyal employee who is suspected of stealing design of the garments, which belongs to the company and selling those garments of the same design under different brand name. Adam investigated that the company does not have any policy related to the copy of design of the garments. He also investigated that the trademark under which the employee is selling the garments is almost identical to the original trademark of the company. On the grounds of which of the following laws can the employee be prosecuted?

A. Espionage law

B. Trademark law

C. Cyber law

D. Copyright law

Correct Answer: B

The Trademark law is a piece of legislation that contains the federal statutes of trademark law in the United States. The Act prohibits a number of activities, including trademark infringement, trademark dilution, and false advertising. Trademarks were traditionally protected in the United States only under State common law, growing out of the tort of unfair competition. Trademark law in the United States is almost entirely enforced through private lawsuits. The exception is in the case of criminal counterfeiting of goods. Otherwise, the responsibility is entirely on the mark owner to file suit in either state or federal civil court in order to restrict an infringing use. Failure to “police” a mark by stopping infringing uses can result in the loss of protection. Answer: D is incorrect. Copyright law of the United States governs the legally enforceable rights of creative and artistic works under the laws of the United States. Copyright law in the United States is part of federal law, and is authorized by the U.S. Constitution. The power to enact copyright law is granted in Article I, Section 8, Clause 8, also known as the Copyright Clause. This clause forms the basis for U.S. copyright law (“Science”, “Authors”, “Writings”) and patent law (“useful Arts”, “Inventors”, “Discoveries”), and includes the limited terms (or durations) allowed for copyrights and patents (“limited Times”), as well as the items they may protect. In the U.S., registrations of claims of copyright, recordation of copyright transfers, and other administrative aspects of copyright are the responsibility of the United States Copyright Office, a part of the Library of Congress. Answer: A is incorrect. The Espionage Act of 1917 was a United States federal law passed shortly after entering World War I, on June 15, 1917, which made it a crime for a person: To convey information with intent to interfere with the operation or success of the armed forces of the United States or to promote the success of its enemies. This was punishable by death or by imprisonment for not more than 30 years. To convey false reports or false statements with intent to interfere with the operation or success of the military or naval forces of the United States or to promote the success of its enemies and whoever when the United States is at war, to cause or attempt to cause insubordination, disloyalty, mutiny, refusal of duty, in the military or naval forces of the United States, or to willfully obstruct the recruiting or enlistment service of the United States. Answer: C is incorrect. Cyber law is a very wide term, which wraps up the legal issue related to the use of communicative, transactional and distributive aspect of networked information device and technologies. It is commonly known as INTERNET LAW. These Laws are important to apply as Internet does not tend to make any geographical and jurisdictional boundaries clear; this is the reason why Cyber law is not very efficient. A single transaction may involve the laws of at least three jurisdictions, which are as follows: 1.The laws of the state/nation in which the user resides 2.The laws of the state/nation that apply where the server hosting the transaction is located 3.The laws of the state/nation, which apply to the person or business with whom the transaction takes place


Question 3:

FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels shows that the procedures and controls have been implemented?

A. Level 2

B. Level 3

C. Level 5

D. Level 1

E. Level 4

Correct Answer: B

The following are the five levels of FITSAF based on SEI\’s Capability Maturity Model (CMM):

Level 1: The first level reflects that an asset has documented a security policy. Level 2: The second level shows that the asset has documented procedures and controls to implement the policy. Level 3: The third level indicates that these

procedures and controls have been implemented. Level 4: The fourth level shows that the procedures and controls are tested and reviewed. Level 5: The fifth level is the final level and shows that the asset has procedures and controls fully

integrated into a comprehensive program.


Question 4:

FIPS 199 defines the three levels of potential impact on organizations. Which of the following potential impact levels shows limited adverse effects on organizational operations, organizational assets, or individuals?

A. Moderate

B. Low

C. Medium

D. High

Correct Answer: B

The potential impact is called low if the loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability is expected to have a limited adverse effect on organizational operations, organizational assets, or individuals. Answer: C is incorrect. Such a type of potential impact level does not exist Answer: A is incorrect. The potential impact is known to be moderate if the loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability is expected to have a serious adverse effect on organizational operations, organizational assets, or individuals. Answer: D is incorrect. The potential impact is called high if the loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability is expected to have a severe or catastrophic adverse effect on organizational operations, organizational assets, or individuals.


Question 5:

The organization level is the Tier 1 and it addresses risks from an organizational perspective. What are the various Tier 1 activities? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. The organization plans to use the degree and type of oversight, to ensure that the risk management strategy is being effectively carried out.

B. The level of risk tolerance.

C. The techniques and methodologies an organization plans to employ, to evaluate information system-related security risks.

D. The RMF primarily operates at Tier 1.

Correct Answer: ABC

The Organization Level is the Tier 1, and it addresses risks from an organizational perspective. It includes the following points: The techniques and methodologies an organization plans to employ, to evaluate information system-related security risks. During risk assessment, the methods and procedures the organization plans to use, to evaluate the significance of the risks identified. The types and extent of risk mitigation measures the organization plans to employ, to address identified risks. The level of risk tolerance. According to the environment of operation, how the organization plans to monitor risks on an ongoing basis, given the inevitable changes to organizational information system. The organization plans to use the degree and type of oversight, in order to ensure that the risk management strategy is being effectively carried out.Answer: D is incorrect. The RMF primarily operates at Tier 3.


Question 6:

Which of the following phases of DITSCAP includes the activities that are necessary for the continuing operation of an accredited IT system in its computing environment and for addressing the changing threats that a system faces throughout its life cycle?

A. Phase 3, Validation

B. Phase 1, Definition

C. Phase 2, Verification

D. Phase 4, Post Accreditation Phase

Correct Answer: D

Phase 4, Post Accreditation Phase of the DITSCAP includes the activities, which are necessary for the continuing operation of an accredited IT system in its computing environment and for addressing the changing threats that a system faces throughout its life cycle. Answer: B is incorrect. Phase 1, Definition, focuses on understanding the mission, the environment, and the architecture in order to determine the security requirements and level of effort necessary to achieve accreditation. Answer: C is incorrect. Phase 2, Verification, verifies the evolving or modified system\’s compliance with the information agreed on in the System Security Authorization Agreement (SSAA). Answer: A is incorrect. Phase 3 validates the compliance of a fully integrated system with the information stated in the SSAA.


Question 7:

Which of the following provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into an existing application?

A. Watermarking

B. ESAPI

C. Encryption wrapper

D. Code obfuscation

Correct Answer: B

ESAPI (Enterprise Security API) is a group of classes that encapsulate the key security operations, needed by most of the applications. It is a free, open source, Web application security control library. ESAPI provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into an existing application. It offers a solid foundation for new development. Answer: A is incorrect. Watermarking is the process of embedding information into software in a way that is difficult to remove. Answer: C is incorrect. Encryption wrapper dynamically encrypts and decrypts all the software code at runtime. Answer: D is incorrect. Code obfuscation is designed to protect code from decompilation.


Question 8:

Which of the following federal agencies has the objective to develop and promote measurement, standards, and technology to enhance productivity, facilitate trade, and improve the quality of life?

A. National Security Agency (NSA)

B. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)

C. United States Congress

D. Committee on National Security Systems (CNSS)

Correct Answer: B

The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), known between 1901 and 1988 as the National Bureau of Standards (NBS), is a measurement standards laboratory which is a non- regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce. The institute\’s official mission is to promote U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and technology in ways that enhance economic security and improve quality of life. Answer: D is incorrect. The Committee on National Security Systems (CNSS) is a United States intergovernmental organization that sets policy for the security of the US security systems. The CNSS holds discussions of policy issues, sets national policy, directions, operational procedures, and guidance for the information systems operated by the U.S. Government, its contractors, or agents that contain classified information, involve intelligence activities, involve cryptographic activities related to national security, etc. Answer: A is incorrect. The National Security Agency/ Central Security Service (NSA/CSS) is a crypto-logic intelligence agency of the United States government. It is administered as part of the United States Department of Defense. NSA is communications and foreign signals intelligence, which involves cryptanalysis. NSA is also responsible for protecting U.S. government communications and information systems from similar agencies elsewhere, which involves cryptography. NSA is a key component of the U.S. Intelligence Community, which is headed by the Director of National Intelligence. The Central Security Service is a co-located agency created to coordinate intelligence activities and co- operation between NSA and U.S. military cryptanalysis agencies. NSA\’s work is limited to communications intelligence. It does not perform field or human intelligence activities. Answer: C is incorrect. The United States Congress is the bicameral legislature of the federal government of the United States of America. It consists of the Senate and the House of Representatives. The Congress meets in the United States Capitol in Washington,

D.C. Both senators and representatives are chosen through direct election. Each of the 435 members of the House of Representatives represents a district and serves a two-year term. House seats are apportioned among the states by population. The 100 Senators serve staggered six-year terms. Each state has two senators, regardless of population. Every two years, approximately one-third of the Senate is elected at a time. The United States Congress main function is to make laws. The Office of the Law Revision Counsel organizes and publishes the United States Code (USC). It is a consolidation and codification by subject matter of the general and permanent laws of the United States.


Question 9:

Which of the following phases of the DITSCAP CandA process is used to define the CandA level of effort, to identify the main CandA roles and responsibilities, and to create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements?

A. Phase 1

B. Phase 4

C. Phase 2

D. Phase 3

Correct Answer: A

The Phase 1 of the DITSCAP CandA process is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the CandA level of effort, identify the main CandA roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. Answer: C is incorrect. The Phase 2 of the DITSCAP CandA process is known as Verification. Answer: D is incorrect. The Phase 3 of the DITSCAP CandA process is known as Validation. Answer: B is incorrect. The Phase 4 of the DITSCAP CandA process is known as Post Accreditation.


Question 10:

Which of the following elements of BCP process includes the areas of plan implementation, plan testing, and ongoing plan maintenance, and also involves defining and documenting the continuity strategy?

A. Business continuity plan development

B. Business impact assessment

C. Scope and plan initiation

D. Plan approval and implementation

Correct Answer: A

The business continuity plan development refers to the utilization of the information collected in the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) for the creation of the recovery strategy plan to support the critical business functions. The information gathered from the BIA is mapped out to make a strategy for creating a continuity plan. The business continuity plan development process includes the areas of plan implementation, plan testing, and ongoing plan maintenance. This phase also consists of defining and documenting the continuity strategy. Answer: C is incorrect. The scope and plan initiation process in BCP symbolizes the beginning of the BCP process. It emphasizes on creating the scope and the additional elements required to define the parameters of the plan. The scope and plan initiation phase embodies a check of the company\’s operations and support services. The scope activities include creating a detailed account of the work required, listing the resources to be used, and defining the management practices to be employed. Answer: B is incorrect. The business impact assessment is a method used to facilitate business units to understand the impact of a disruptive event. This phase includes the execution of a vulnerability assessment. This process makes out the mission-critical areas and business processes that are important for the survival of business. It is similar to the risk assessment process. The function of a business impact assessment process is to create a document, which is used to help and understand what impact a disruptive event would have on the business. Answer: D is incorrect. The plan approval and implementation process involves creating enterprise-wide awareness of the plan, getting the final senior management signoff, and implementing a maintenance procedure for updating the plan as required.


Question 11:

The Web resource collection is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification v2.4. Which of the following elements does it include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. HTTP methods

B. Role names

C. Transport guarantees

D. URL patterns

Correct Answer: AD

Web resource collection is a set of URL patterns and HTTP operations that define all resources required to be protected. It is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification v2.4. The Web resource collection

includes the following elements: URL patterns HTTP methods Answer: B is incorrect. An authorization constraint includes role names. Answer:

C is incorrect. A user data constraint includes transport guarantees.


Question 12:

Which of the following activities are performed by the \’Do\’ cycle component of PDCA (plan- do- check-act)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. It detects and responds to incidents properly.

B. It determines controls and their objectives.

C. It manages resources that are required to achieve a goal.

D. It performs security awareness training.

E. It operates the selected controls.

Correct Answer: ACDE

The \’Do\’ cycle component performs the following activities: It operates the selected controls. It detects and responds to incidents properly. It performs security awareness training. It manages resources that are required to achieve a goal. Answer: B is incorrect. This activity is performed by the \’Plan\’ cycle component of PDCA.


Question 13:

The Data and Analysis Center for Software (DACS) specifies three general principles for software assurance which work as a framework in order to categorize various secure design principles. Which of the following principles and practices does the General Principle 1 include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles

B. Assume environment data is not trustworthy

C. Simplify the design

D. Principle of least privilege

Correct Answer: AD

General Principle 1- Minimize the number of high-consequence targets includes the following principles and practices:

Principle of least privilege Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles Principle of separation of domains Answer: B is incorrect. Assume environment data is not trustworthy principle is included in the General Principle 2. Answer: C

is incorrect. Simplify the design principle is included in the General Principle 3.


Question 14:

Martha works as a Project Leader for BlueWell Inc. She and her team have developed accounting software. The software was performing well. Recently, the software has been modified. The users of this software are now complaining about the software not working properly. Which of the following actions will she take to test the software?

A. Perform integration testing

B. Perform regression testing

C. Perform unit testing

D. Perform acceptance testing

Correct Answer: B

Regression testing can be performed any time when a program needs to be modified either to add a feature or to fix an error. It is a process of repeating Unit testing and Integration testing whenever existing tests need to be performed again along with the new tests. Regression testing is performed to ensure that no existing errors reappear, and no new errors are introduced. Answer: D is incorrect. The acceptance testing is performed on the application before its implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets the requirement for which it was made. Answer: A is incorrect. Integration testing is a logical extension of unit testing. It is performed to identify the problems that occur when two or more units are combined into a component. During integration testing, a developer combines two units that have already been tested into a component, and the interface between the two units. Although integration testing can be performed in various ways, the following three approaches are generally used: The top-down approach The bottom-up approach The umbrella approach Answer: C is incorrect. Unit testing is a type of testing in which each independent unit of an application is tested separately. During unit testing, a developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. Drivers and stubs are programs. A driver simulates a calling unit, and a stub simulates a called unit.


Question 15:

The build environment of secure coding consists of some tools that actively support secure specification, design, and implementation. Which of the following features do these tools have? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. They decrease the exploitable flaws and weaknesses.

B. They reduce and restrain the propagation, extent, and damage that have occurred by insecure software behavior.

C. They decrease the attack surface.

D. They employ software security constraints, protections, and services. E. They decrease the level of type checking and program analysis.

Correct Answer: ABCD

The tools that produce secure software have the following features: They decrease the exploitable flaws and weaknesses. They decrease the attack surface. They employ software security constraints, protections, and services. They reduce and restrain the propagation, extent, and damage that are caused by the behavior of insecure software. Answer: E is incorrect. This feature is not required for these tools.


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