[PDF and VCE] Free Geekcert IBM C2040-409 VCE and PDF, Exam Materials Instant Download

Which certification is the most popular and worthy to get? No doubt the IBM Certified Advanced System Administrator Latest C2040-409 study guide IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition Application Development A exam is a worth challenging task but you should take among all the IT certifications . Geekcert is providing the latest version of IBM Certified Advanced System Administrator Jan 15,2022 Newest C2040-409 pdf dumps PDF and VCE dumps now. Comprehensive understanding on Newest C2040-409 pdf dumps IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition Application Development A exam syllabus through Geekcert 100% pass guarantee of the success on your IBM Certified Advanced System Administrator Hotest C2040-409 pdf IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition Application Development A exam taking.

Geekcert braindumps Geekcert dumps free download. Geekcert – help candidates on all C2040-409 certification exams preparation. pass C2040-409 certification exams, get it certifications easily. C2040-409 study circle – a C2040-409 certification exam preparation blog Geekcert exam preparation study materials. Geekcert provides you the easiest way to pass your C2040-409 certification exam.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest C2040-409 preparation materials from IBM Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/C2040-409.html

The following are the C2040-409 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our C2040-409 dumps.Although questions are from C2040-409 free dumps, the validity and accuracy of the C2040-409 dumps are absolutely guaranteed.

Question 1:

Grayson created an application that is deployed on servers and with local replicas on individual user workstations. What feature of IBM Notes can limit the data deployed to local replicas?

A. Managed Replicas

B. Database Encryption

C. Master Database Templates

D. Selective Replication Formula

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

James has a large number of image resources and he knows that the name of the image resource will change when it is updated. How can he add an alias name to the image resource?

A. After the image resource name, type a vertical bar (|) followed by the alias name.

B. Image resource names are chosen when they are created and cannot be renamed.

C. Open the Image resource in the IBM Domino Designer client and add the alias name to the “Alias” field.

D. Image resources are chosen at the time they are created and do not support an Alias name.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

James will need to use IBM LotusScript in order to modify the Calendar Profile stored in his mail file. Given the following snippet of code, what would be the correct line for instantiating the Calendar Profile? Dim session As New NotesSession Dim db As NotesDatabase Dim doc As NotesDocument Set db=session.CurrentDatabase

A. Set doc=db.GetProfileDocument(“CalendarProfile”)

B. Set doc=db.SetProfileDocument(“CalendarProfile”)

C. Set doc=session.GetProfileDocument(“CalendarProfile”)

D. Set doc=session.SetProfileDocument(“CalendarProfile”)

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

What is the primary purpose of a master template?

A. It is required to use XPages.

B. It is required to use external data sources.

C. It prevents users from updating applications.

D. It keeps application instances consistent in design.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

An IBM Domino application performs certain operations, such as DDE-related functions, that are not available in all platform versions of IBM Notes and Domino. What function can be used to determine the underlying operating system?

A. @Version

B. @ClientType

C. @Platform([Specific])

D. @Platform([ClientType])

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Mary has written an IBM Domino XPage application called myxsp in myDb.nsf on myServer. The end users are reporting performance issues on first use after the server starts. What two things could Mary do to improve performance of the application? (Choose two.)

A. Set XPagesPreload=1 in the server notes.ini.

B. Add myxsp to the JavaUserClasses in the notes.ini.

C. Reduce the Java hap size via HTTPJavamaxheapsize notes.ini parameter.

D. Increase the Java Heap size via HTTPJavamaxheapsize notes.ini parameter.

E. Set XPagesPreloadDB=myServer!!myDb.nsf/myxsp.xsp in the server notes.ini.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 7:

The Debug_AMGR notes.ini parameter can be used to debug IBM Domino agents running in which context?

A. run on a client

B. scheduled via AMGR

C. called through HTTP via a browser

D. during a test running in the IBM Domino Designer client

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

What data does the Remote Debugger Utility window include?

A. the program call stack of the agent at the time of error

B. the line number of the agent running at the time of error

C. breakpoints, program calls, print output and agent variables

D. program calls, print output and the UNID of each document written by the agent

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which statement is true with regards to the usage of WebQuerySave event?

A. runs the agent after field input validation formulas are run and after the document is actually saved to disk

B. runs the agent before field input validation formulas are run and after the document is actually saved to disk

C. runs the agent after field input validation formulas are run and before the document is actually saved to disk

D. runs the agent before field input validation formulas are run and before the document is actually saved to disk

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which shared design element gives a developer the ability to control many aspects of the page layout, including headers, links, text, fonts, styles, color, and margins?

A. HTML files

B. image resources

C. JavaScript libraries

D. cascading style sheets

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Chloe would like to add an alias for one of her forms. What is one way she could do that?

A. Add the alias to the “Alias Names” section in the form properties.

B. Add a $Alias item to the form design note with the alias as its value.

C. Add a computed field named “Alias” to the form and set its value to the alias.

D. Add a “|” (pipe symbol) and the alias after the Name specified in the form properties.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which statement is correct when using a theme in an XPage application?

A. Themes are restricted to using CSS styles.

B. Themes can be used in any CSS style sheet.

C. Themes allow the designer to set and control any XML property.

D. Themes are a standard XML design element and can be used in any HTML application including XPages.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Kenneth is using a Computed for display Text field on his form. He would like for new documents created with the form to display the data from that field in a column in a view. What is one of the things that he could to do to be able to do that?

A. Change the field Type to Editable.

B. Populate the Column value property of the field.

C. Enable the “Available to public views” property of the form.

D. Use the @Text function in the Input Translation event of the field.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Lauren is creating a new form in a database and wants to add an action to that form for her users. How does Lauren add the action to her form?

A. Lauren is not able to add an action to a form as actions are available for views only.

B. Lauren would right-click in the QueryOpen event of the form and choose Insert Action.

C. Lauren would right-click while in the Action section under Code in the Application Eclipse view and choose New Action.

D. While Lauren has that form open in the IBM Domino Designer client, choose the menu option Create > Action > Action.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which three field types allow multiple values? (Choose three.)

A. Text

B. Listbox

C. Rich Text

D. Checkbox

E. Combobox

F. Radio Button

Correct Answer: ABD


[Newest Version] Free Geekcert HP HPE0-S57 PDF and Exam Questions Download 100% Pass Exam

How to pass Latest HPE0-S57 vce dumps exam easily with less time? Geekcert provides the most valid Jan 14,2022 Hotest HPE0-S57 vce dumps exam preparation material to boost your success rate in HP HPE ASE Latest HPE0-S57 practice Designing HPE Hybrid IT Solutions exam. If you are one of the successful candidates with Geekcert Newest HPE0-S57 vce PDF and VCEs, do not hesitate to share your reviews on our HP HPE ASE materials.

Geekcert – find all popular HPE0-S57 exam certification study materials here. our expert team is ready to help you to get your certification easily. Geekcert braindumps Geekcert dumps free download. Geekcert it exam study material and real exam questions and answers help you pass HPE0-S57 exams and get HPE0-S57 certifications easily.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest HPE0-S57 preparation materials from HP Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/hpe0-s57.html

The following are the HPE0-S57 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our HPE0-S57 dumps.HPE0-S57 free dumps are questions from the latest full HPE0-S57 dumps. Check HPE0-S57 free questions to get a better understanding of HPE0-S57 exams.

Question 1:

A customer is a cloud provider who needs a new storage array. They want a solution that has built-in multi-tenancy features. Why should you propose HPE 3PAR StoreServ to the customer?

A. It divides controller nodes into groups for multiple tenants.

B. It includes the virtual domains feature as part of all-inclusive licensing.

C. It divides drives into separate pools for multiple tenants.

D. It includes the NPARs feature for physical separation of the array into tenant areas.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/4aa3-3516enw.pdf


Question 2:

What must be taken into account when using the HPE FlexFabric 5945 4-slot Switch as a ToR switch in a solution?

A. adding in a Network Analytics Engine license

B. specifying a fan tray with the appropriate direction of airflow

C. adding in an Intelligent Resilient Framework license

D. selecting power supplies with adequate reserve PoE capacity

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/uk/en/product-catalog/networking/networking-switches/pip.hpe-flexfabric-5945-switch-series.1010931108.html


Question 3:

A customer wants to implement a container platform across their enterprise data center. They need to automate hardware and software configurations to quickly provision and deploy at scale. Which authentication solution should you recommend?

A. Red Hat Ansible Tower

B. OpenStack on OpenStack

C. Chef

D. DevStack

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A customer contacts you for assistance with an expansion of their current HPE Synergy environment. The existing environment contains:

1.

one Synergy 12000 frame

2.

two Composers

3.

eight SY480 Compute Modules – 1 CPU – 384GB RAM – 3820C 10/20GbE CNA

4.

one D3940 Storage Module

The new requirement is 16Gb FC connectivity to a newly-deployed 3PAR storage array.

Which components should you include? (Choose two.)

A. Synergy 3830C Host Bus Adapter

B. two QSFP AOC/DAC cables for ICM clustering

C. a second CPU per Compute Module

D. HPE Synergy FC License Upgrade per Composer pair

E. an additional Virtual Connect SE 40Gb F8

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=c05061206


Question 5:

A customer running multiple HPE Synergy frames wants to change a parameter in the BIOS of all their VMware servers, based on the recommendations of their VMware team. Where is the most efficient location to make this change?

A. iLO Federation

B. Server Profile Template

C. Logical Enclosure

D. ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU)

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

In preparation for a customer presentation, you need to provide meaningful estimates of cooling requirements for HPE ProLiant, HPE Apollo, and HPE Synergy servers. What should you use?

A. HPE Synergy Planning Tool

B. HPE Proposal Web

C. HPE Server Memory Configurator

D. HPE Power Advisor

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA6-2925ENW.pdf


Question 7:

A customer requires front panel access for their Gen10 servers. What is required to meet this need?

A. a USB 2.0 Ethernet adapter

B. an installed iLo Advance license

C. Secure Boot enabled

D. Two-factor authentication enabled

Correct Answer: A

HPE iLO Service port – How to use it?


Question 8:

You are designing a highly-available SQL database solution, following HPE reference architectures for Microsoft SQL 2017 on Linux. Which HA design factors should be considered? (Choose two.)

A. Real-Time Operational Analytics

B. Transparent Data Encryption

C. Always On Failover Cluster Instance (FCI)

D. Read-Scale Availability Groups

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/a00036336enw.pdf


Question 9:

A customer is asking for the latest version of the HPE Nimble Storage Integration Guide. Where can the customer download the guide?

A. HPE SPOCK

B. HPE Product Bulletin

C. HPE InfoSight

D. HPE Information Library

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/Application-Integration/Announcing-the-release-of-HPE-Nimble-Storage-PowerShell-Toolkit/td-p/7017899#.XgCDWmbVLiw


Question 10:

A customer is interested in a Synergy solution. They need 100 compute modules and expect the workload to double in two years. They ask for the minimum number of management ports they will need to connect Synergy frames into their management network. How should you reply?

A. FLMs from all frames connect into a management ring, and the management ring connects into their management network with two uplinks.

B. FLMs from all frames connect to two external switches, and these two switches connect into their management network.

C. Synergy solution only allows 15 frames to be interconnected, so growth in customer\’s workload is not supported.

D. The RJ-45 ports on the front of each frame are connected to an external switch, which is connected into their management network.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You are designing a network topology for a customer. The customer is looking for a large-scale Layer 2 fabric, with redundant links and load balancing, while avoiding traditional STP, RSTP, and MSTP protocols. Which switch will support these features with industry standard technology?

A. HPE FlexFabric 5980

B. HPE FlexFabric 12902E

C. Aruba 8325

D. HPE FlexFabric 5710

Correct Answer: B

https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/c04111378.pdf


Question 12:

You propose an HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8200 array for a customer who needs 900 TiB raw storage space. After the proposal was created, the customer went through with a competitor acquisition. Now they need to accommodate 1600 TiB. What should you propose to the customer?

A. Instead of 3PAR StoreServ 8200 2-node configuration, propose an 8400 4-node configuration with the needed amount of drives.

B. Instead of 3PAR StoreServ 8200 2-node configuration, propose an 8400 2-node configuration with a 2-node upgrade and the needed amount of drives.

C. Upgrade the 3PAR StoreServ 8200 2-node configuration with four additional nodes and the needed amount of drives.

D. Upgrade the 3PAR StoreServ 8200 2-node configuration with Data Optimization Software Suite and the needed amount of drives.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

In preparation for a customer presentation, you need to create a validated configuration, including services. Which tool should you use?

A. HPE One Configuration Advanced

B. HPE Power Advisor

C. HPE Server Memory Configurator

D. HPE Synergy Planning Tool

E. HPE Proposal Web

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A customer has the following design requirements:

1.

Support for 16Gb Fibre Channel

2.

All SAN elements must be managed by the SAN team

3.

All SAN elements need to be managed by the existing tools

Which component must be included in the design to meet the customer\’s requirements?

A. HPE Virtual Connect SE 16Gb FC Module for HPE Synergy

B. HPE Virtual Connect SE 40Gb FC Module for HPE Synergy

C. HPE Synergy 8Gb FC License Upgrade

D. Brocade 16Gb Fibre Channel SAN Switch Module for HPE Synergy

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/c04790440.pdf


Question 15:

A customer needs a VMware Horizon VDI solution with accelerated GPU support. They need the highest density GPU solution available. Which solution should you recommend?

A. HPE WS460c Gen9 Graphics Server Blade with graphics expansion

B. HPE Apollo r2600 with RCM Module

C. HPE Synergy SY 480 with multi-MXM expansion module

D. HPE DL360 Gen10 with primary GPU riser

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=emr_na-a00006274en_us


[PDF and VCE] Free Share NCA-5.15 PDF Exam Preparation Materials with Geekcert Real Exam Questions

100% candidates have passed the Nutanix Certified Associate (NCA) Hotest NCA-5.15 exam questions exam by the help of Geekcert pass guaranteed Nutanix Certified Associate (NCA) Jan 14,2022 Latest NCA-5.15 QAs preparation materials. The Geekcert Nutanix PDF and VCEs are the latest and cover every knowledge points of Nutanix Certified Associate (NCA) Hotest NCA-5.15 exam questions Nutanix Certified Associate (NCA) 5.15 Exam certifications. You can try the Q and As for an undeniable success in Newest NCA-5.15 exam questions exam.

Geekcert – the most professional NCA-5.15 certification exam practice questions and answers provider. easily pass your NCA-5.15 exams. just have a try! Geekcert test prep guides to pass your NCA-5.15 exam. Geekcert – 100% real NCA-5.15 certification exam questions and answers. easily pass with a high score. Geekcert – help you to pass all NCA-5.15 certification exams!

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest NCA-5.15 preparation materials from Nutanix Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/nca-5-15.html

The following are the NCA-5.15 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our NCA-5.15 dumps.NCA-5.15 free dumps are questions from the latest full NCA-5.15 dumps. Check NCA-5.15 free questions to get a better understanding of NCA-5.15 exams.

Question 1:

Which statement best defines Replication Factor 2 (RF2)?

A. Data will be written locally, and a second copy then will be replicated to another cluster

B. Data will be written locally, and a second copy to another disk group

C. Data will be written locally, and a second copy goes to a remote site

D. Data will be written locally, and a second copy goes to another node in the same cluster

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

What Nutanix product provides multi-cloud cost and security governance?

A. Era

B. Leap

C. Beam

D. Flow

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator has received the error shown in the exhibit.

Which two steps should the administrator take, in preparation for opening a Nutanix support ticket? (Choose two.)

A. Get the Block Serial Number from the Hardware Page

B. Get the Node Serial Number from IPMI

C. Get the DIMM Slot Number from the node BIOS

D. Get the AOS version from the Settings Page

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is indicated by the yellow area of the chart?

A. Normal utilization

B. Critical alerts

C. Warning alerts

D. Abnormal utilization

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator has created a new VM, but when accessing the console to monitor the guest install, the administrator sees the error shown in the exhibit

What is the likely cause of this issue?

A. The installation media was not mounted.

B. The wrong type of disk was specified.

C. The boot order is incorrectly configured.

D. The Nuianix VirtlO driver (SO was not mounted.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which Nutanix cluster component is responsible for the cluster configuration?

A. Cassandra

B. Stargate

C. Zookeeper D. Zeus

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

An administrator has a SQL VM running, which is experiencing high disk latency. What could the administrator do to alleviate this?

A. Increase CPU and Memory on the CVM

B. Attach additional Volume Groups to the VM

C. Add more CPU and Memory to the VM

D. Create another Storage Container

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

A customer is running a three-node Nutanix cluster.

Which data optimization feature cannot be enabled in this scenario?

A. Post Compression

B. Map-reduce dedup

C. Erasure Coding

D. Inline Compression

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

An administrator needs to replace a node in a three-node cluster. The health status for the environment is good and the cluster is able to support a single node failure.

Which step must be performed first?

A. Remove the failed node from the cluster

B. Verify hypervisor versions

C. Plug in all network cables

D. Expand the cluster with the new node

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which policy specifies that a selected VM will only run on a specific group of nodes?

A. Isolation

B. Anti-affinity

C. Affinity

D. Fixed

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit: Based on the exhibit what can be definitively determined about Host DEMO-AHV-2\’

A. it has performed more on-disk lookups than the other nodes.

B. It\’s cache is undersized compared to the other nodes.

C. The system memory is undersized.

D. It is hosting a higher quantity of VMs than the other nodes.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

An administrator with an AHV cluster notices that time/date stamps in logs for some VMs are not correct. After investigating, the administrator finds that many of their user VMs are set to UTC

What two methods can be used to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Configure NTP within Prism.

B. Configure the VMs time zone inside each guest VM.

C. Configure the time zone for each VM using Prism.

D. Configure NTP inside each guest VM.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 13:

An administrator wants to ensure that a particular VM starts before any other VM in the environment after performing maintenance. How can the administrator achieve this?

A. Marie the VM as a High Priority VM in Prism Central

B. Mark the VM for Host Affinity in Prism Element

C. Mark the VM as an Agent VM in Prism Element

D. Mark the VM as a High Priority VM in Prism Element

Correct Answer: AC


Question 14:

What are two types of Protection Domains that Nutanix offers for Data Protection? (Choose two.)

A. Metro Availability

B. Snapshots

C. Async DR

D. Consistency Group

Correct Answer: AC


Question 15:

Which two Nutanix features offer the ability to restore a VM? (Choose two.)

A. Data Protection

B. Nutanix Leap

C. Nutanix Flow

D. Site Recovery Manager

Correct Answer: AB


[PDF and VCE] Free Share HP2-Z34 PDF Exam Preparation Materials with Geekcert Real Exam Questions

This is a note. Please give me your attention if you are preparing for your HP Latest HP2-Z34 exam questions exam. It is really a tough task to pass ASE Jan 15,2022 Hotest HP2-Z34 pdf exam. However, Geekcert will help you on that with the most comprehensive PDF and VCEs of the latest ASE Hotest HP2-Z34 study guide exam questions, covering each and every aspect of ASE Hotest HP2-Z34 practice Building HP FlexFabric Data Centers exam curriculum.

Geekcert HP2-Z34 certification dumps : oracle, ibm and many more. association of certification HP2-Z34 exam resources – Geekcert. Geekcert | lead to pass HP2-Z34 certification exams. first test, first pass! Geekcert exam guide: pass the HP2-Z34 exam on your first attempt! Geekcert free certification HP2-Z34 exam | Geekcert practice HP2-Z34 exams | Geekcert test HP2-Z34 questions.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest HP2-Z34 preparation materials from HP Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/HP2-Z34.html

The following are the HP2-Z34 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our HP2-Z34 dumps.Real questions from HP2-Z34 free dumps. Download demo of HP2-Z34 dumps to check the validity.

Question 1:

An administrator is configuring an HP switch to run SPBM. Which Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) configuration is required?

A. Disable STP.

B. Ensure that the switch with the lowest IS-IS router ID has the lowest bridge priority.

C. Set the spanning tree mode to ECT.

D. Map all B-VLANs to MSTP instance 4092

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

To provide redundancy, a company has multiple data centers that use server virtualization. What is a networking requirement for this scenario?

A. less bandwidth at the server access layer and more bandwidth at the distribution layer than in a non- virtualized network

B. physical network segmentation and isolation implemented at Layers 1 through 7

C. localized storage volumes that are isolated within each data center

D. extension of Layer 2 connectivity across the data centers

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

What is the purpose of the nickname in TRILL switch settings?

A. The nickname identifies the TRILL region and must match on every TRILL RBridge in the region.

B. Administrators can use the nicknames to identify switches in CLI output.

C. The nickname is the first factor for electing a root bridge

D. TRILL RBridges use the nicknames as source and destination addresses in TRILL headers

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A multi-tenant data center with 12 tenants has the following goals:

Isolate tenants to enable each tenant to have its own routing space

Isolate the data center\’s services in its own routing space.

Allow for some leaking of route information among tenants and company services

Which feature should be configured on the data center routing switches?

A. MPLS

B. VPLS

C. MDC

D. Multi-VPN-Instance CE (MCE)

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

An HP IRF virtual switch with two members is implementing SPBM. The administrator wants to ensure that the master can fail without causing topology changes or changes in forwarding tables in the SPBM region. Which setting helps support this requirement?

A. tandem replication for multicasts

B. persistent MAC address for IRF

C. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) Multi-Active Detection (MAD) for the IRF link

D. non-stop-forwarding for SPBM

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit

useOSPF

have established an MPLS domain.

use LDP.

have established a Martini Layer 2 VPN between Sites 1 and 2

VPN traffic is using the link between PE-1 and P-4, and this link fails.

What happens to the VPN traffic?

A. It is disrupted for this particular site-to-site connection until the link is fixed

B. It fails over to the link between PE-1 and P-5 only //administrators created a backup virtual circuit (VC) from PE-1 to

C. It fails over to the link between PE-1 and P-5 only if administrators created two virtual circuits (VCs) between PE-1

D. and PE-2.

E. It fails over to the link between PE-1 and P-5. The failover is automatically handled by MPLS. LDP, and OSPF

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

An HP Comware switch port is being connected to a server Converged Network Adaptor (CNA). The CNA and the switch port need to communicate about parameters for various priority flow control (PFC) and bandwidth control mechanisms. How does the administrator enable these communications?

A. Enable PFC globally and then enable PFC on the switch port

B. Enable the Fibre Channel (FC) fabric port function on the switch port and then set the port as an F-port.

C. Enable Ethernet Virtual Bridging (EVB) on the switch port.

D. Enable LLDP globally and then enable Data Center Bridging eXchange (DCBX) TLVs on the switch port

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

An administrator configures an HP Comware switch to support FCoE in Fibre Channel Forwarder (FCF) mode. A switch interface connects to a server Converged Network Adapter (CNA) which sends normal data and storage traffic. What is the correct configuration for this port?

A. FC port in NP mode

B. bound to a VFC interface, which is in F mode

C. bound to a VFC interface, which is in E mode

D. FC port in F mode

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which statement is correct about defining a Route Distinguisher (RD) for a VPN instance on an HP Comware switch?

A. The RD is only required when the router runs Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) and must match the BGP router ID.

B. The RD is only required when the router runs Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) and must be unique to that VPN instance.

C. The RD is always required and must match the switch global router ID.

D. The RD is always required and must be unique to that VPN instance.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit

An MPLS Layer 2 VPN is being implemented between Sites 1 and 2. The administrator wants PE-1 and PE-2 to set up the Virtual Circuit (VC) dynamically by using the Martini method. What is required to accomplish this goal?

A. redistribution of Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) routes into Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) on PE-1 and PE-2

B. remote LDP session between PE-1 and PE-2

C. iPSec tunnel between PE-1 and PE-2

D. VPN instance with the same route distinguisher (RD) on PE-1 and PE-2

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit

A VSAN is being set up on an HP Comware switch that will connect to server Converged Network Adapters (CNAs) and storage systems The administrator is checking the configuration of the VSAN with display commands The exhibit shows the results.

What is a potential issue?

A. The current zoning configuration does not permit any communication.

B. The fabric name has been set to the same ID as the switch WWN. which causes conflicts.

C. The distribute mode for zones has been set to active only, which can cause issues with redundancy.

D. The domain ID has been set manually to a preferred ID, but this switch does not have the highest priority

Correct Answer: C


[Newest Version] Free Geekcert Juniper JN0-343 PDF and Exam Questions Download 100% Pass Exam

There is no need to worry when you are suffering the difficult time in the JNCIS Hotest JN0-343 free download exam preparation, Geekcert will assist you to pass the JNCIS Latest JN0-343 study guide exam with latest update JNCIS Latest JN0-343 practice Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-ENT) PDF and VCE dumps. Geekcert has the most comprehensive Juniper exam preparation materials, covering each and every aspect of JNCIS Jan 15,2022 Hotest JN0-343 pdf Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-ENT) exam curriculum. We ensure you 100% success in JNCIS Newest JN0-343 practice exam.

association of certification JN0-343 exam resources – Geekcert. Geekcert – 100% real JN0-343 certification exam questions and answers. easily pass with a high score. Geekcert: JN0-343 certification training portal. Geekcert free certification JN0-343 exam | Geekcert practice JN0-343 exams | Geekcert test JN0-343 questions.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest JN0-343 preparation materials from Juniper Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/JN0-343.html

The following are the JN0-343 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our JN0-343 dumps.Although questions are from JN0-343 free dumps, the validity and accuracy of the JN0-343 dumps are absolutely guaranteed.

Question 1:

Which configuration correctly assigns the deny-telnet firewall filter as an input filter to all ports in VLAN 200?

A. [email protected]> show configuration vlans v200 { vlan-id 200; vlan-filter input deny-telnet; }

B. [email protected]> show configuration vlans v200 { vlan-id 200; filter { input deny-telnet; } }

C. [email protected]> show configuration interface ge-0/0/10.0 family ethernet-switching { vlan { members v200; vlan-filter input deny-telnet; } }

D. [email protected]> show configuration interface ge-0/0/10.0 family ethernet-switching { vlan { members v200; } filter { input deny-telnet; } }

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which configuration summarizes external routes in the 172.16.0.0/22 range into a single prefix on an ABR for Area 1?

A. protocols { ospf { area 0.0.0.1 { nssa { default-lsa { default-metric 1; metric-type 1; } } area-range 172.16.0.0/22; } } }

B. protocols { ospf { area 0.0.0.1 { nssa { area-range 172.16.0.0/22; } } } }

C. protocols { ospf { area 0.0.0.1 { stub summaries; } } }

D. protocols { ospf { area 0.0.0.1 { nssa; area-range 172.16.0.0/22 restrict; } } }

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

How does a Level 1 IS-IS router reach destinations outside its own area?

A. through the closest Level 1 router

B. along the best path to the destination

C. through the closest Level 1/2 router

D. through the closest designated intermediate system (DIS)

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

By default, how frequently does the designated intermediate system (DIS) send out its hello packets?

A. 3 seconds

B. 6 seconds

C. 9 seconds

D. 12 seconds

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

What is one benefit of a switched LAN?

A. It enables the LAN to forward non-IP traffic.

B. It ensures that all hosts can reach each other by flooding all traffic to all ports.

C. It limits memory use by eliminating the need for a bridging table.

D. It limits the collision domain.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Click on the Exhibit button.

Based on the exhibit, which step in the BGP route-selection process causes the router to choose the selected path?

A. MED

B. metric to next hop

C. local preference

D. neighbor ID

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Given the following output, what has been configured for the 192.168.3.0/24 prefix?

A. per-flow load balancing

B. a floating static route

C. per-packet load balancing

D. a qualified next hop

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which two statements are true about IS-IS? (Choose two.)

A. All level 2 PDUs are flooded to Level 1 by default.

B. All level 1 PDUs are flooded to Level 2 by default.

C. Both Level 1 and Level 2 adjacencies can exist on the same interface.

D. Level 2 external routes are always available in Level 1.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 9:

Which command correctly assigns AS 65432 as the local router\’s autonomous system?

A. set protocols bgp local-as 65432

B. set routing-options local-as 65432

C. set protocols bgp autonomous-system 65432

D. set routing-options autonomous-system 65432

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

What is the minimum configuration necessary to create two VLANs and two operational RVIs?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which two commands can be used to show the content of a bridge table? (Choose two.)

A. show ethernet-switching table

B. show route forwarding-table family ethernet-switching

C. show bridging table

D. show forwarding table

Correct Answer: AB


Question 12:

Which statement describes IS-IS operation?

A. Routes in a Level 2 area are advertised into Level 1 areas by default.

B. To advertise Level 2 routes into a Level 1 area, an export policy must be configured.

C. Level 1 routes are not advertised into Level 2 by default.

D. The Level 2 router advertises a default route into Level 1.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which BGP attribute can modify only an adjacent AS\’s optimal entry point into the local AS?

A. MED

B. local preference

C. AS path

D. community

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which configuration correctly sets interface ge-0/0/4 in trunk mode, carrying VLANs v10 and v20?

A. ge-0/0/4 { unit 0 { family ethernet-switching { vlan { members [ v10 v20 ]; } } } }

B. ge-0/0/4 { unit 0 { family ethernet-switching { port-mode trunk; vlan { members [ v10 v20 ]; } } } }

C. ge-0/0/4 { vlan-tagging; unit 0 { family ethernet-switching { port-mode trunk; vlan { members [ v10 v20 ]; } } } }

D. ge-0/0/4 { unit 10 { family ethernet-switching; } unit 20 { family ethernet-switching; } }

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which two statements are true regarding a designated intermediate system (DIS) in an IS- IS network? (Choose two.)

A. It performs a similar role to the designated router (DR) in OSPF.

B. It is not allowed to send any PDUs on a designated intermediate system (DIS).

C. A backup DIS is not elected.

D. DIS selection uses the router\’s IP address as a tiebreaker.

Correct Answer: AC


Pass Guarantee 212-89 Exam By Taking Geekcert New EC-COUNCIL 212-89 VCE And PDF Braindumps

This dump is 100% valid to pass EC-COUNCIL ECIH Jan 14,2022 Newest 212-89 pdf dumps exam. The only tips is please do not just memorize the questions and answers, you need to get through understanding of it because the question changed a little in the real exam. Follow the instructions in the Geekcert ECIH Hotest 212-89 QAs EC-Council Certified Incident Handler PDF and VCEs. All Geekcert materials will help you pass your EC-COUNCIL ECIH exam successfully.

Geekcert – help you to pass all 212-89 certification exams! Geekcert – best way to guarantee your 212-89 certification and exam success! Geekcert provides you the easiest way to pass your 212-89 certification exam. Geekcert | lead to pass 212-89 certification exams. first test, first pass! Geekcert – your reliable partner and professional 212-89 certification exam material provider.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 212-89 preparation materials from EC-COUNCIL Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/212-89.html

The following are the 212-89 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 212-89 dumps.We have sample questions for 212-89 free dumps. You can download and check the real questions of updated 212-89 dumps.

Question 1:

A distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is a more common type of DoS Attack, where a single system is targeted by a large number of infected machines over the Internet. In a DDoS attack, attackers first infect multiple systems which are known as:

A. Trojans

B. Zombies

C. Spyware

D. Worms

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

The goal of incident response is to handle the incident in a way that minimizes damage and reduces recovery time and cost. Which of the following does NOT constitute a goal of incident response?

A. Dealing with human resources department and various employee conflict behaviors.

B. Using information gathered during incident handling to prepare for handling future incidents in a better way and to provide stronger protection for systems and data.

C. Helping personal to recover quickly and efficiently from security incidents, minimizing loss or theft and disruption of services.

D. Dealing properly with legal issues that may arise during incidents.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A computer Risk Policy is a set of ideas to be implemented to overcome the risk associated with computer security incidents. Identify the procedure that is NOT part of the computer risk policy?

A. Procedure to identify security funds to hedge risk

B. Procedure to monitor the efficiency of security controls

C. Procedure for the ongoing training of employees authorized to access the system

D. Provisions for continuing support if there is an interruption in the system or if the system crashes

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Identify the network security incident where intended authorized users are prevented from using system, network, or applications by flooding the network with high volume of traffic that consumes all existing network resources.

A. URL Manipulation

B. XSS Attack

C. SQL Injection

D. Denial of Service Attack

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Incident handling and response steps help you to detect, identify, respond and manage an incident. Which of the following steps focus on limiting the scope and extent of an incident?

A. Eradication

B. Containment

C. Identification

D. Data collection

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Identify the malicious program that is masked as a genuine harmless program and gives the attacker unrestricted access to the user\’s information and system. These programs may unleash dangerous programs that may erase the unsuspecting user\’s disk and send the victim\’s credit card numbers and passwords to a stranger.

A. Cookie tracker

B. Worm

C. Trojan

D. Virus

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Quantitative risk is the numerical determination of the probability of an adverse event and the extent of the losses due to the event. Quantitative risk is calculated as:

A. (Probability of Loss) X (Loss)

B. (Loss) / (Probability of Loss)

C. (Probability of Loss) / (Loss)

D. Significant Risks X Probability of Loss X Loss

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

An incident recovery plan is a statement of actions that should be taken before, during or after an incident. Identify which of the following is NOT an objective of the incident recovery plan?

A. Creating new business processes to maintain profitability after incident

B. Providing a standard for testing the recovery plan

C. Avoiding the legal liabilities arising due to incident

D. Providing assurance that systems are reliable

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Risk is defined as the probability of the occurrence of an incident. Risk formulation generally begins with the likeliness of an event\’s occurrence, the harm it may cause and is usually denoted as Risk = (events)X (Probability of occurrence)X?

A. Magnitude

B. Probability

C. Consequences

D. Significance

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

An audit trail policy collects all audit trails such as series of records of computer events, about an operating system, application or user activities. Which of the following statements is NOT true for an audit trail policy:

A. It helps calculating intangible losses to the organization due to incident

B. It helps tracking individual actions and allows users to be personally accountable for their actions

C. It helps in compliance to various regulatory laws, rules,and guidelines

D. It helps in reconstructing the events after a problem has occurred

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Computer forensics is methodical series of techniques and procedures for gathering evidence from computing equipment, various storage devices and or digital media that can be presented in a course of law in a coherent and meaningful format. Which one of the following is an appropriate flow of steps in the computer forensics process:

A. Examination> Analysis > Preparation > Collection > Reporting

B. Preparation > Analysis > Collection > Examination > Reporting

C. Analysis > Preparation > Collection > Reporting > Examination

D. Preparation > Collection > Examination > Analysis > Reporting

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

A US Federal agency network was the target of a DoS attack that prevented and impaired the normal authorized functionality of the networks. According to agency\’s reporting timeframe guidelines, this incident should be reported within two

(2)

HOURS of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing and the agency is unable to successfully mitigate the activity. Which incident category of the US Federal Agency does this incident belong to?

A.

CAT 5

B.

CAT 1

C.

CAT 2

D.

CAT 6

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Identify a standard national process which establishes a set of activities, general tasks and a management structure to certify and accredit systems that will maintain the information assurance (IA) and security posture of a system or site.

A. NIASAP

B. NIAAAP

C. NIPACP

D. NIACAP

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Policies are designed to protect the organizational resources on the network by establishing the set rules and procedures. Which of the following policies authorizes a group of users to perform a set of actions on a set of resources?

A. Access control policy

B. Audit trail policy

C. Logging policy

D. Documentation policy

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

A threat source does not present a risk if NO vulnerability that can be exercised for a particular threat source. Identify the step in which different threat sources are defined:

A. Identification Vulnerabilities

B. Control analysis

C. Threat identification

D. System characterization

Correct Answer: C


HPE2-T36 HP Real Questions, Free PDF Tests Online and Free Study Guides

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, Geekcert, help you with your HP HPE Product Certified – OneView [2020] Jan 14,2022 Hotest HPE2-T36 practice Using HPE OneView exam. Geekcert will assist you clear the Newest HPE2-T36 vce exam with HPE Product Certified – OneView [2020] Hotest HPE2-T36 vce PDF and VCE questions. Geekcert exam dumps are the most comprehensive ones.

Geekcert – HP dumps, braindumps, certification HPE2-T36 exam dumps. free HPE2-T36 exam sample questions, HPE2-T36 exam practice online, HPE2-T36 exam practice on mobile phone, HPE2-T36 pdf, HPE2-T36 books, HPE2-T36 pdf file download! Geekcert – leading source of HPE2-T36 certification exam learning/practice. pass your HPE2-T36 exam in 1 day with Geekcert.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest HPE2-T36 preparation materials from HP Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/hpe2-t36.html

The following are the HPE2-T36 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our HPE2-T36 dumps.Real questions from HPE2-T36 free dumps. Download demo of HPE2-T36 dumps to check the validity.

Question 1:

Which HPE OneView features are used by the HPE OneView for VMware vCenter plugin to simplify the process of deploying a complete vSphere cluster? (Choose two.)

A. Smart Update Manager

B. PowerShell Library

C. Intelligent Provisioning

D. Server Profile Templates

E. REST API

Correct Answer: BD


Question 2:

What is the best place to find installed firmware for all systems managed by HPE OneView?

A. HPE Service Pack for HPE ProLiant

B. HPE OneView predefined reports

C. HPE Insight Online

D. HPE OneView for Microsoft System Center

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Where can an administrator select the firmware baseline for a specific Synergy compute node?

A. Logical Interconnect Group

B. Server Profile

C. Image Streamer

D. Intelligent Provisioning

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

A customer has HPE OneView 1.2 and wants to upgrade to 4.0. What is the correct procedure?

A. import all virtual connect manager environments and then upgrade directly to 4.0

B. upgrade directly to 4.0

C. upgrade to 3.1, import all virtual connect manager environments, then upgrade to 4.0

D. upgrade to 3.1 and then upgrade to 4.0

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

What is required for a user to authenticate to an HPE OneView appliance configured for two-factor authentication?

A. Smartcard

B. Self-signed certificate

C. SMS

D. One-time Passwords

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

You plan to add a user account that can only manage a subset of resources. You notice that the Scope field only lists All Resources when creating the user. What is the cause of this behavior?

A. Scopes can only be assigned when using certain roles.

B. Scopes can only be assigned after creating the user account.

C. Scopes cannot be used if roles are assigned to the user account.

D. Scopes must be defined before assigning them to user accounts.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A customer has deployed the HPE OneView virtual appliance and is getting an error message when they attempt to import a Synergy frame for management. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. Synergy frames require additional HA requirements for the virtual appliance.

B. Synergy frames are managed by the HPE Composer.

C. The backup IPv6 address of the Frame Link module was used during the import.

D. The HPE OneView virtual appliance has the wrong database size.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

What types of activities can be displayed in the Activity section of the HPE OneView UI? (Choose two.)

A. tasks

B. alerts

C. connections

D. deployments

E. email notifications

Correct Answer: AB


Question 9:

A customer creates a server profile template with two new volumes. The first is an 8 GB LUN for the boot drive. The second is a 500 GB LUN for the ESXi cluster shared storage. After the server profiles are assigned to the servers they each have an 8 GB drive and a 500 GB drive but the 500 GB drive isn\’t shared across the member nodes within the cluster. What is the most likely problem with the Server Profile Template?

A. Mapping multiple LUNs aren\’t supported with HPE OneView Server Profile Templates.

B. Both volumes were created as Private.

C. The incorrect logical disk type was selected.

D. ESXi can\’t share drives created dynamically via HPE OneView.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

An administrator is configuring a server profile template, but does not see the Ethernet network called “VLAN 210” that had been created earlier. What could be the cause?

A. VLAN 210 was never configured in the Logical Interconnect Group.

B. VLAN 210 is already in a Network Set.

C. VLAN 210 does not exist on the upstream switches.

D. VLAN 210 has Private Network enabled.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which resource categories can be included in a scope? (Choose two.)

A. racks

B. data centers

C. firmware bundles

D. enclosures

Correct Answer: AC


Question 12:

What is the most likely reason for CPU, temperature, or power utilization not being presented in HPE OneView?

A. The wrong HPE OneView Advanced License Key was entered.

B. The agent on the server stopped communicating with HPE OneView.

C. The server doesn\’t have an iLO Advanced License.

D. The wrong SNMP data was entered into iLO.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

A customer has a mixture of Gen8 and newer DL and BL devices. They want to enable support automation and run inventory reports on their devices. They are currently using Insight Control but are considering HPE OneView. They can\’t have any downtime on the devices if they change management strategies. What option is most efficient for them?

A. Move to HPE OneView Advanced with Remote Support enabled.

B. Move to HPE OneView Standard with Remote Support enabled.

C. Stay on Insight Control and activate a Proactive Care contract.

D. Stay on Insight Control and enable Insight Online.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Your customer needs to downgrade the firmware on a number of blades because they experienced issues with the current firmware. The customer modifies the server profile to the required firmware baseline and selects update, but the firmware downgrade is not successful. What step needs to be taken to ensure the firmware downgrade is applied?

A. Set the firmware baseline to “Managed Manually”

B. Select the “Force installation” option to downgrade the firmware

C. Create and assign a new server profile for the affected servers

D. Contact HPE support to obtain a one-time password to enable firmware downgrade

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

A company wants to integrate an acquired company\’s infrastructure into their existing Synergy 3 frame environment. They currently have 286 VLANs in their operational network set. They want to add 153 new VLANs into the configuration. What would you recommend?

A. Integrate the new networks into the existing network set.

B. Purchase a second three frame configuration for the new company.

C. Create a second network set for the new VLANs.

D. Add a second fabric domain to the existing configuration to support the new networks.

Correct Answer: A


[Latest Version] Easily Pass AZ-303 Exam With Geekcert Updated Microsoft AZ-303 Preparation Materials

No debt that the Microsoft Role-based Latest AZ-303 study guide dumps are very popular and Geekcert provides variety of Microsoft Role-based Jan 14,2022 Hotest AZ-303 free download exam dumps in PDF and VCE format. Geekcert will continue to release latest Role-based Hotest AZ-303 pdf Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies study materials to meet the rapidly increasing demand of the IT industry.

Geekcert- being successful in your AZ-303 certification exams with AZ-303 exam study guide. 100% pass rate and money back guarantee. Geekcert | lead to pass AZ-303 certification exams. first test, first pass! Geekcert – any AZ-303 exam, AZ-303 easy pass. the Geekcert AZ-303exam | pass the AZ-303 exam on your first try!

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest AZ-303 preparation materials from Microsoft Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/az-303.html

The following are the AZ-303 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our AZ-303 dumps.Real questions from AZ-303 free dumps. Download demo of AZ-303 dumps to check the validity.

Question 1:

You need to access user claims in the e-commerce web app. What should you do first?

A. Write custom code to make a Microsoft Graph API call from the e commerce web app.

B. Assign the Contributor RBAC role to the e-commerce web app by using the Resource Manager create role assignment API

C. Update the e-commerce web app to read the HTTP request header values.

D. Using the Azure CU, enable Cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) from the e- commerce checkout API to the e-commerce web

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

You need to meet the scaling requirements for Policy Service. What should you store in Azure Redis Cache?

A. ViewState

B. HttpContext.tems

C. Session state

D. TempData

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

You need to ensure that the solution can meet the scaling requirements for Policy Service. Which Azure Application Insights data model should you use?

A. an Application Insights trace

B. an Application Insights metric

C. an Application Insights dependency

D. an Application Insights event

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

You need to meet the technical requirement for VM4. What should you create and configure?

A. an Azure Event Hub

B. an Azure Notification Hub

C. an Azure Logic App

D. an Azure Service Bus

Correct Answer: A

Scenario: Create a workflow to send an email message when the settings of VM4 are modified.

You can start an automated logic app workflow when specific events happen in Azure resources or third-party resources. These resources can publish those events to an Azure event grid. In turn, the event grid pushes those events to subscribers that have queues, webhooks, or event hubs as endpoints. As a subscriber, your logic app can wait for those events from the event grid before running automated workflows to perform tasks – without you writing any code.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/monitor-virtual-machine-changes-event-grid-logic-app


Question 5:

You need to recommend a solution to automate the configuration for the finance department users. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. an Azure logic app and the Microsoft Identity Management (MIM) client

B. Azure AD Identity Protection

C. dynamic groups and conditional access policies

D. Azure AD B2C

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Scenario: Ensure Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for the users in the finance department only.

The recommendation is to use conditional access policies that can then be targeted to groups of users, specific applications, or other conditions.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-userstates


Question 6:

You need to configure AG1. What should you create?

A. a basic routing rule

B. a multi-site listener

C. a basic listener

D. a URL path-based routing rule

Correct Answer: D

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/application-gateway-create-url- route-portal


Question 7:

What should you create to configure AG2?

A. multi-site listeners

B. URL path-based routing rules

C. basic routing rules

D. an additional public IP address

E. basic listeners

Correct Answer: A

-AG2 must load balance incoming traffic in the following manner:

-http://www.adatum.com will be load balanced across Pool21.

-http://fabrikam.com will be load balanced across Pool22.

You need to configure an Azure Application Gateway with multi-site listeners to direct different URLs to different pools.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/multiple-site-overview


Question 8:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.

Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a Microsoft Office 365 SMTP server.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto- configure-notifications


Question 9:

You need to resolve the delivery API error. What should you do?

A. Implement simple retry by using the EnableRetryOnFailure feature of Entity Framework.

B. Implement exponential backoff by using the EnableRetryOnFailure feature of Entity Framework.

C. Implement a Circuit Breaker pattern by using the EnableRetryOnFailure feature of Entity Framework.

D. Invoke a custom execution strategy in Entity Framework.

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-develop-error-messages


Question 10:

You need to debug the user greeting issue. What should you use?

A. Azure Application Insights

B. Bot Framework Emulator

C. Bot Framework Channel Inspector

D. Bot Connector service

E. Azure Compote Emulator

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You need to meet the security requirements. What should you use?

A. HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS)

B. Direct Line API

C. Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

D. Bot Framework Portal

E. Bot Framework authentication

Correct Answer: E


Question 12:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.

Solution: Configure notifications in the Azure API Management instance.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto- configure-notifications


Question 13:

You need to implement the purchase requirement. What should you do?

A. Use the Bot Framework REST API conversation operations to send the user\’s voice and the Speech Service API to recognize intents.

B. Use the Direct Line REST API to send the user\’s voice and the Speech Service API to recognize intents.

C. Use the Speech Service API to send the user\’s voice and the Bot Framework REST API conversation operations to recognize intents.

D. Use the Bot Framework REST API attachment operations to send the user\’s voice and the Speech Service API to recognize intents.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.

Solution: Create and apply a custom outbound Azure API Management policy.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto- configure-notifications


Question 15:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.

Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a cloud-based email service.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto- configure-notifications


[PDF and VCE] Free Geekcert Huawei H19-311 VCE and PDF, Exam Materials Instant Download

Geekcert ensures to provide the most update Newest H19-311 pdf dumps Huawei Certified Pre-sales Specialist-UPS-CHS exam questions with the most accurate answers. Geekcert Huawei Specialist Certification Newest H19-311 free download are the most complete and authoritative exam preparation materials with which one can pass the Huawei Specialist Certification Latest H19-311 pdf dumps exam in an easy way. Preparing for Huawei Huawei Specialist Certification Jan 15,2022 Hotest H19-311 QAs Huawei Certified Pre-sales Specialist-UPS-CHS exam is really a tough task to accomplish. But Geekcert will simplified the process.

Geekcert – help you to pass all H19-311 certification exams! Geekcert – latest update source for all H19-311 certification exams. Geekcert – H19-311 certification exams – original questions and answers – success guaranteed. Geekcert – 100% real H19-311 certification exam questions and answers. easily pass with a high score.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest H19-311 preparation materials from Huawei Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/h19-311.html

The following are the H19-311 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our H19-311 dumps.H19-311 free dumps are questions from the latest full H19-311 dumps. Check H19-311 free questions to get a better understanding of H19-311 exams.

Question 1:

The output terminal type of the 6-kVA UPS2000-G is ( ).

A. Terminal block

B. C13

C. Terminal block C13

D. Terminal block socket compliant with international standards

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

The standard number of batteries in a single battery pack for the UPS2000-G series (6 kVA to 20 kVA) is ().

A. 16

B. 17

C. 18

D. 20

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which of the following UPS types does the PS5000-E (50 kVA power module) belongs to? (Multiple Choice)

A. Industrial frequency UPS

B. High frequency UPS

C. Rack and tower-mounted UPS

D. Modular UPS

Correct Answer: BD


Question 4:

Which of the following actions does the UPS2000-A take to deal with excessive operating temperatures?

A. Switch to bypass mode.

B. Switch to battery mode.

C. Stop output and power off loads.

D. No action is taken.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Multiple input/output systems can meet the requirements in customers\’ power grid application scenarios. What input/output systems does the 10-kVA UPS2000-G support? (Multiple Choice)

A. Single-phase input and single-phase output

B. Single-phase input and three-phase output

C. Three-phase input and three-phase output

D. Three-phase input and single-phase output

Correct Answer: AD


Question 6:

Which of the following is the maintenance bypass implementation mode of the UPS2000-G series (6 kVA to 20 kVA)? ()

A. The UPS2000-G provides a built-in maintenance bypass.

B. A PDU is configured to support a maintenance bypass.

C. Maintenance bypass is unsupported.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

The UPS2000-G is a double conversion online UPS powered by mains in the normal operating state. A rectifier converts AC power into DC power, and then an inverter converts the rectified DC power into pure AC power to be supplied to loads. A charger is used to charge the storage battery string.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which of the following countries can the UPS5000-E (25-125 kVA) be sold to? (Multiple Choice)

A. China and Asian-Pacific region

B. Middle East and North Africa

C. The Commonwealth of the Independent States and Europe

D. North America

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 9:

The UPS5000-E is an efficient UPS. Which of the following statements are correct? (Multiple Choice) A. The efficiency can be up to 96%.

A. The efficiency can be up to 95% at 20% loads.

B. The efficiency can be up to 94% at 20% loads.

C. The efficiency can be up to 96% at 40% loads.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 10:

A cable rack inside a cabinet occupies () U cabinet space.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

The UPS5000 is compatible with module and tower.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

The UPS5000-A features wide voltage and frequency input range. It can be used in severe grid environments and extend the battery service life. What\’s the maximum input voltage range of the UPS5000-A?

A. 138-85 V

B. 305-85 V

C. 240-80 V

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

For the 6-kVA UPS2000-G, a 1 1 parallel system requires () DB15 parallel cables to ensure that each UPS is connected by at least two parallel cables and to enhance the parallel system reliability.

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

The UPS5000-E can realize convenient and simple 2N power supply system only by configuring a ().

A. BSC cable

B. Synchronized control

C. BSC control board

D. Parallel card

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

APM and NXR need to derate at 30°C, while the UPS5000-E does not need to derate below 40°C.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


[PDF and VCE] Free Geekcert IBM C2010-530 VCE and PDF, Exam Materials Instant Download

As a leading IT exam study material provider, Geekcert not only provides you the Latest C2010-530 study guide exam questions and answers but also the most comprehensive knowledge of the whole IBM Certified Infrastructure Deployment Professional Latest C2010-530 pdf AWS-Certified-Solutions-Architect-Professional certifications. We provide our users with the most accurate Latest C2010-530 free download AWS-Certified-Solutions-Architect-Professional study material about the IBM Certified Infrastructure Deployment Professional Latest C2010-530 pdf exam and the guarantee of pass. We assist you to get well prepared for IBM Certified Infrastructure Deployment Professional Jan 15,2022 Hotest C2010-530 practice certification which is regarded valuable the IT sector.

Geekcert – help all candidates pass the C2010-530 certification exams easily. Geekcert 100% real C2010-530 certification exam questions and answers. easily pass with a high score. Geekcert test prep guides to pass your C2010-530 exam. Geekcert it exam study material and real exam questions and answers help you pass C2010-530 exams and get C2010-530 certifications easily.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest C2010-530 preparation materials from IBM Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/c2010-530.html

The following are the C2010-530 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our C2010-530 dumps.We have sample questions for C2010-530 free dumps. You can download and check the real questions of updated C2010-530 dumps.

Question 1:

Following a successful installation on a Windows server, the administrator wants to confirm the release of Maximo installed. Which program can be run to confirm this?

A. \maximo\applications\maximo\version.bat

B. \maximo\applications\maximo\release.bat

C. \maximo\applications\maximo\validate.bat

D. \maximo\applications\maximo\installed.bat

Correct Answer: A

References: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg21405886


Question 2:

A company\’s users are seeing slow performance when opening the Work Order Tracking application. After some investigation it is determined that the default query is doing a full table scan. How can this be prevented?

A. Verify default table indexes exist.

B. Verify columns in the SQL statement WHERE clause are not indexed.

C. Verify no leading wildcard character in the SQL statement WHERE clause.

D. Verify the Maximo user executing the SQL statement has query rights to the table.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

One of the organizations within a company does business in two currencies and has established a second base currency. What must also be defined for this organization?

A. Valid financial period

B. Second chart of account

C. Valid exchange rate for the currencies

D. Chart of account for exchange rate variances

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A company wishes to change the logic within a Workflow process but users currently have records within the process. Which would be the correct method to achieve this?

A. Create a process revision, validate, enable and activate it.

B. Suspend the Workflow process, make the required changes and activate it.

C. Disable and Deactivate the Workflow, make the required changes and activate it.

D. Update the workflow process logic and perform an Admin Mode Database Configuration.

Correct Answer: A

References: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSKVFR_7.5.2/com.ibm.mbs.doc/pdfs/pdf_mbs_workflow.pdf Page: 35


Question 5:

A user is a member of four Non-Independent security groups which have different purchase order limits set for sites within the same organization.

Security Group 1 Site = Bedfont Purchase order limit = $1000 Security Group 2 Site = Bedfont, Southbank Purchase order limit = $15000 Security Group 3 Site = Portsmouth Purchase order limit = $20000 Security Group 4 Site = Farnham Purchase order limit = $3000

What will the purchase order limit be for the user when working with the Farnham site?

A. $1000

B. $3000

C. $15000

D. $20000

Correct Answer: D

References: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSWT9A_7.6.0/com.ibm.mbs.doc/securgroup/c_combination_security_groups.html


Question 6:

A company is installing Maximo and will be configuring WebSphere on a remote server. They are able to login to the WebSphere console from the installing workstation, but installation fails with an error that the WebSphere server cannot be

reached.

What could be a possible cause of the error?

A. Remote access has not been enabled on the server running WebSphere.

B. The server running WebSphere does not have a fully-qualified domain name.

C. The server running WebSphere is on a different network subnet than the installing workstation.

D. The installing workstation is running a different operating system than the server running WebSphere.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which one of the following is supported by the Maximo upgrade toolkit to 7.6?

A. Custom extensions

B. Integration definitions

C. Upgrade to Maximo Multitenancy

D. Custom triggers created directly in the database

Correct Answer: C

References: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSLKT6_7.6.0/com.ibm.mam.doc/overview/c_new_ins_upg_7.6.html


Question 8:

A company needs to enable application server security for Maximo. Which web.xml entry must be set to a value of 1?

A. FORM

B. role-name

C. useAppServerSecurity

D. AppServerSecurityConstraint

Correct Answer: C

References: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SS8CCV_7.6.0/com.ibm.mbs.doc/securgroup/t_config_system_use_app_server_security.html


Question 9:

A company is running the VMMSYNC Cron Task to add users to Maximo from the LDAP directory server. Not all the users are being created in Maximo. Which log setting can be defined to see more information?

A. Set log4j.logger.maximo.sql.crontask.VMMSYNC to ERROR

B. Set log4j.logger.maximo.sql.crontask.VMMSYNC to DEBUG

C. Set log4j.logger.maximo.process.crontask.VMMSYNC to ERROR

D. Set log4j.logger.maximo.process.crontask.VMMSYNC to DEBUG

Correct Answer: B

References: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SS8CCV_7.6.0/com.ibm.mbs.doc/logging/t_logging_app_server_security_synch.html


Question 10:

When building Maximo and Maximo Help EAR files from a command line, what is the default folder where the resulting files will be placed?

A. IBM\maximo\default

B. IBM\SMP\maximo\deployment

C. IBM\SMP\maximo\deployment\EAR

D. IBM\SMP\maximo\deployment\default

Correct Answer: D

References: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg21462246


Question 11:

The users at a company are experiencing delays during Maximo login. What is the most likely cause?

A. Too many Start Center tabs.

B. Too many portlets on the default Start Center.

C. Inclusion of left side bar navigation menus and options.

D. Too many favorite application links on the default Start Center.

Correct Answer: B

References: https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/community/blogs/a9ba1efe-b731-4317-9724-a181d6155e3a/entry/Improving_Start_Center_performance_in_Maximo?lang=en


Question 12:

A company wants to optimize query performance using Maximo search options. Which of the following is the best option?

A. None

B. Index

C. Exact

D. Wildcard

Correct Answer: C

References: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg21375684


Question 13:

A company has three organizations, two of which share the same General Ledger accounting structure and one organization with a different accounting structure. Which application is used to define these structures for all organizations?

A. Domains

B. Cost Management

C. Chart of Accounts

D. Database Configuration

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which Maximo data types are used to store encrypted confidential information?

A. All data types

B. CLOB and BLOB data types

C. Crypto or CryptoX data types

D. Only data types containing confidential information

Correct Answer: C

References: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSLKT6_7.6.0/com.ibm.mt.doc/configur/r_attribute_data_types.html


Question 15:

A company has a Planner Role and requires work orders assigned to this role to be visible in the Start Center. Which portlet type must be used?

A. KPI Portlet

B. Result Set Portlet

C. Quick Insert Portlet

D. Workflow Assignment Portlet

Correct Answer: B

References: https://interprosoft.com/maximotimes/maximo/premium/create-my-work-order-assignments-portlet-for-your-start-center/