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Question 1:

An environment is running a VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC) with six i3.metal hosts. Storage space usage has increased and the administrator is required to add storage capacity. Which two approaches can the administrator take to add storage capacity? (Choose two.)

A. Deploy Amazon Elastic File System (EFS) file shares from the AWS console and attach them to the i3.metal hosts. Use VMware Storage vMotion to migrate the storage-bound virtual machines to the Amazon EFS data stores.

B. Deploy Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS) storage volumes (GP2) from the AWS console and attach them to the i3.metal hosts. Allow VMware vSAN extend the storage capacity automatically.

C. Deploy an additional cluster based on i3en.metal hosts and migrate the storage-bound virtual machines to the i3en.metal hosts.

D. Add additional i3.metal hosts to increase the total vSAN storage space.

E. Add additional i3en.metal hosts and migrate the storage-bound virtual machines to the i3en.metal hosts.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 2:

An environment is running a cluster with six i3.metal hosts in the VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC). If one host fails, what happens after a new host is automatically added to the cluster?

A. The SDDC and NVMe drives backing VMware vSAN capacity are unmounted from the failed host and attached to the new host. There is no VMware vSAN rebuild required.

B. The VMware vSAN rebuild starts in the background. Performance might be degraded during rebuild and the failures to tolerate (FTT) is lowered to 0.

C. The VMware vSAN rebuild starts in the background. Performance might be degraded during rebuild and the failures to tolerate (FTT) is lowered to 1.

D. A notification is received from VMware Support to start the VMware vSAN rebuild. Performance might be degraded during rebuild.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

An administrator deploys a virtual machine and configures it to perform backups to an AWS Simple Storage Service (S3) bucket. After the first month of use, the administrator receives a bill from AWS indicating egress charges were applied to the backup traffic leaving the software-defined data center (SDCC), destined for the AWS S3 bucket. What can the administrator do to ensure backup traffic travels to the linked Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) through the Elastic Network Interface?

A. Configure the S3 bucket with a public endpoint accessible over the Internet through HTTPS.

B. Configure Direct Connect to a private virtual interface for access to AWS services.

C. Create a gateway endpoint in the linked AWS VPC and configure it for use with the S3 bucket.

D. Configure a route-based virtual private network (VPN) for the SDDC to the VPC.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A customer wants to ensure that VMware Cloud on AWS maintenance operations are performed during their maintenance window. Which option would allow the customer to achieve this outcome?

A. Schedule a maintenance preference in the software-defined data center (SDDC) console.

B. Schedule a call with VMware Cloud on AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window.

C. Schedule a call with AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window.

D. Schedule a maintenance window through an online support request.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

An administrator runs an analysis on all workloads using Live Optics and confirms there are a variety of applications, including Microsoft SQL server and Oracle databases. The Microsoft SQL workloads are averaging 4,000 IOPS per virtual machine, approximately 50% writes. The Oracle workloads are averaging 3,000 IOPS per virtual machine, and approximately 80% writes. Which method should be used to input the data into the VMware Cloud on AWS Sizer for the most accurate results?

A. Use the Advanced Sizer in \’database\’ mode. Create workload profiles for the analyzed virtual machines, including profiles for Microsoft SQL and Oracle. Set the values for vCPU, vRAM, utilized storage, IOPS and I/O profile manually.

B. Use the Quick Sizer. Set the values for vCPU, vRAM, utilized storage, IOPS and I/O profile manually.

C. Use the Advanced Sizer in \’import\’ mode. Import the Live Optics data and let the Advanced Sizer set the values for vCPU, vRAM, utilized storage, IOPS and I/O automatically.

D. Use the Advanced Sizer in \’manual\’ mode. Create workload profiles for the analyzed virtual machines, including profiles for Microsoft SQL and Oracle. Use the default values for the SQL and Oracle workload profiles.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

An administrator has deployed VMware Cloud on AWS and requires a single broadcast domain for a set of

virtual machines that reside both in the data center and in the software-defined data center (SDDC) over a

DirectConnect connection.

How can the administrator accomplish this without adding additional components in the cloud?

A. Duplicate the IP space in both locations and manually move the virtual machines.

B. Deploy a Layer 2 Virtual Private Network (L2VPN).

C. Use a third-party networking tool to extend the broadcast domain.

D. Deploy VMware HCX and a Service Mesh with a Network Extension appliance.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

An administrator is trying to identify how many hosts will be required to evacuate a cluster from an existing data center and relocate those workloads into VMware Cloud on AWS. The cluster runs a variety of workloads for the corporate customer relationship management system. Which three profiles could the administrator create in the VMware Cloud on AWS Sizer? (Choose three.)

A. Databases ?Oracle

B. Databases ?Microsoft SQL Server

C. General Purpose (Application VMs)

D. VDI ?Instant Clone

E. VDI ?Full Clone

F. General Purpose (General VMs)

Correct Answer: BEF


Question 8:

An administrator deploys a VMware Cloud on AWS environment and configures an IPsec virtual private network (VPN) tunnel to their data center. Hybrid Linked Mode connectivity, however, does NOT appear to be working. Before contacting VMware Support, what could the administrator do to narrow down the possible issue?

A. Fill in the relevant IP information for the on-premises infrastructure and run the desired troubleshooting connectivity test.

B. Download and review the Tier-0 (TO) gateway firewall logs.

C. Configure a packet capture device in the on-premises data center to capture packets from the VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC) to determine which packets are being dropped.

D. Configure a packet capture appliance on a local segment within VMware Cloud on AWS to capture and analyze traffic across a specific NSX-T gateway interface.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

When deploying a VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC), which components are deployed automatically?

A. VMware ESXi, vCenter, vSAN, NSX, Hybrid Linked Mode

B. VMware ESXi, vCenter, vSAN, NSX in active/passive mode

C. VMware ESXi, vCenter, vSAN, NSX, HCX

D. VMware ESXi, vCenter, vSAN, NSX in active/active mode

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator completes an assessment of its local data center for potential migration into VMware Cloud on AWS. After reviewing and analyzing the data and taking into account the company\’s business and IT priorities and budget constraints, connectivity between its on-premises and VMware Cloud on AWS environment will NOT require any high speed low latency connections. All new networks should be added to the software-defined data center (SDDC) routing table automatically when created. Which connection supports these requirements?

A. Layer 2 VPN (L2VPN)

B. AWS Direct Connect

C. Route-based VPN

D. Policy-based VPN

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

A consultant is asked to help evaluate an environment for deployment into a new software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. The consultant is provided with a comma-separated value (CSV) file containing a list of workloads exported from VMware vCenter detailing only virtual machine configuration data, including vCPU, vRAM, and utilized storage. How should the consultant use the VMC on AWS Sizer?

A. Use the Advanced Sizer. Create workload profiles for the different workload types and set the values for configured resources manually.

B. Use the Advanced Sizer. Import the CSV file from VMware vCenter Server and let the VMware Cloud on AWS Sizer set the values for configured resources.

C. Use the Advanced Sizer. Import the CSV file from VMware vCenter Server and let the VMware Cloud on AWS Sizer set the values for configured resources.

D. Use the Quick Sizer. Manually enter the number of virtual machines and total resources for configured resources.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

An administrator deploys a virtual machine to its software-defined data center (SDDC) and configures it to perform backups of the other virtual machines in the SDDC. The administrator also creates an AWS Simple Storage Service (S3) bucket in the linked Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) and is attempting to use the S3 bucket as a repository for their backups. The administrator confirms that the backup software is capable of using AWS S3 storage as a backup repository, and that the AWS S3 bucket is configured to use an endpoint in the linked VPC. What else should the administrator do to ensure connectivity between SDDC virtual machines and the AWS S3 repository in the linked VPC through the Elastic Network Interface?

A. Configure Direct Connect to a Private Virtual Interface for access to AWS services.

B. Configure a route-based VPN for the SDDC to the VPC.

C. Configure Direct Connect to a Public Virtual Interface for access to AWS services.

D. Ensure Service Access for S3 is enabled in Networking and Security for the SDDC.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator builds a software-defined data center (SDDC) group to enable connectivity to native Amazon Virtual Private Clouds (VPCs). Which connectivity option is needed to enable connectivity across environments?

A. Tier-0 (T0) Router

B. Transit Gateway

C. Virtual Private Network

D. The Default Storage Scale-Out policy storage threshold is set 5% higher than the other Elastic DRS storage policies.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which two statements are true about the characteristics of the Default Storage Scale-Out policy? (Choose two.)

A. Elastic DRS automatically sets to the Default Storage Scale-Out policy, adding hosts only when storage utilization exceeds a certain threshold.

B. When the storage threshold of the Default Storage Scale-Out policy has been resolved, Elastic DRS automatically performs a scale-in operation.

C. The Default Storage Scale-Out policy storage threshold level is set to meet SLA requirements and can

not be superseded by other Elastic DRS policies.

D. The Default Storage Scale-Out policy thresholds for CPU or memory usage are set higher than the other Elastic DRS policies.

E. The Default Storage Scale-Out policy storage threshold is set 5% higher than the other Elastic DRS storage policies.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 15:

Which two accounts are mandatory prerequisites for the successful deployment of a VMware Cloud on AWS solution? (Choose two.)

A. A VMware vCenter Server account

B. An AWS account

C. A VMware Cloud account

D. An Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) account

E. A VMware Cloud on AWS account

Correct Answer: AE


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Question 1:

Journalling doesn\’t appear to be working on an ext3 file-system. When booting, the following line appears:

VFS: Mounted root (ext2 filesystem) readonly. What could be causing the problem?

A. An old version of e2fsprogs is installed.

B. The kernel does not contain ext3 support.

C. The file-system is specified as ext2 in/etc/fstab.

D. The system was not shut down cleanly.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

What is the missing keyword in the following configuration sample for dovecot which defines which authentication types to support?

(Specify only the keywork) auth default { ______ = plain login cram-md5 }

A. auth_order

B. mechanisms

C. methods

D. supported

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

You suspect that you are receiving messages with a forged From: address. What could help you find out where the mail is originating?

A. Install TCP wrappers, and log all connections on port 25

B. A dd the command \’FR-strlog\’ to the sendmail.cf file

C. Add the command \’define (\’LOG_REAL_FROM\’) dnl\’ to the sendmail.mc file

D. Run a filter in the aliases file that checks the originating address when mail arrives

E. Look in the ReceiveD. and Message-ID. parts of the mail header

Correct Answer: E


Question 4:

Which of the following organisations track and report on security related flaws in computer technology? (Please select TWO answers)

A. Bugtraq

B. CERT

C. CSIS

D. Freshmeat

E. Kernel.org

Correct Answer: AC


Question 5:

Which of the following options can be passed to a DHCP client machine using configuration options on the DHCP server?

A. The NIS domain name

B. The resolving order in /etc/resolv.conf

C. The priority order in nsswitch.conf

D. The filter rules for iptables

E. The contents of hosts.allow and hosts.deny

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which Squid configuration directive defines the authentication method to use?

A. auth_param

B. auth_method

C. auth_program

D. auth_mechanism

E. proxy_auth

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

There is a restricted area in an Apache site, which requires users to authenticate against the file /srv/ www/ security/site-passwd.

Which command is used to CHANGE the password of existing users, without losing data, when Basic authentication is being used.

A. htpasswd -c /srv/www/security/site passwd user

B. htpasswd /srv/www/security/site-passwd user

C. htpasswd -n /srv/www/security/site-passwd user

D. htpasswd -D /srv/www/security/site-passwd user

E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

When Apache is configured to use name-based virtual hosts:

A. it\’s also necessary to configure a different IP address for each virtual host.

B. the Listen directive is ignored by the server.

C. it starts multiple daemons (one for each virtual host).

D. it\’s also necessary to create a VirtualHost block for the main host.

E. only the directives ServerName and DocumentRoot may be used inside a block.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which option must be used with ifconfig, to also see interfaces that are down?

A. -d

B. -a

C. –all

D. –down

E. None.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

An SSH server is configured to use tcp_wrappers and only hosts from the class C network 192.168.1.0 should be allowed to access it. Which of the following lines would achieve this, when entered in/etc/hosts.allow?

A. ALLOW: 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0 : sshd

B. sshd : 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0 : ALLOW

C. 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0 : ALLOW: sshd

D. tcpD. sshd : 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0 : ALLOW

E. sshd : ALLOW: 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which TWO /etc/hosts.allow entries will allow access to sshd from the class C network 192.168.1.0?

A. sshd : 192.168.1.

B. sshd : 192.168.1

C. sshd : 192.168.1.0 netmask 255.255.255.0

D. sshd : 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0

E. sshd : 192.168.1.0

Correct Answer: AD


Question 12:

Which of the following can the program tripwire NOT check?

A. File size.

B. File signature.

C. Permissions.

D. File existence.

E. Boot sectors.

Correct Answer: E


Question 13:

Which command line create an SSH tunnel for POP and SMTP protocols?

A. ssh- L :110 -L :25 -1 user -N mailhost

B. ssh -L 25:110 -1 user -N mailhost

C. ssh -L mailhost:110 -L mailhost:25 -1 user -N mailhost

D. ssh -L mailhost:25:110 -1 user

E. ssh -L 110:mailhost:110 -L 25:mailhost:25 -1 user -N mailhost

Correct Answer: E


Question 14:

Which command would release the current IP address leased by a DHCP server?

A. ipconfig /release

B. ifconfig –release-all

C. dhclient -r

D. ifconfig –release

E. pump –release

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

What command can be used to check the Samba configuration file?

A. testconfig

B. testsmbconfig

C. smbtestcfg

D. smbtestparm

E. testparm

Correct Answer: E


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Question 1:

Which of the following is not a component of contractual PII?

A. Scope of processing

B. Value of data

C. Location of data

D. Use of subcontractors

Correct Answer: C

The value of data itself has nothing to do with it being considered a part of contractual


Question 2:

Which of the following roles involves testing, monitoring, and securing cloud services for an organization?

A. Cloud service integrator

B. Cloud service business manager

C. Cloud service user

D. Cloud service administrator

Correct Answer: D

The cloud service administrator is responsible for testing cloud services, monitoring services, administering security for services, providing usage reports on cloud services, and addressing problem reports


Question 3:

What is the only data format permitted with the SOAP API?

A. HTML

B. SAML

C. XSML

D. XML

Correct Answer: D

The SOAP protocol only supports the XML data format.


Question 4:

Which of the following roles involves overseeing billing, purchasing, and requesting audit reports for an organization within a cloud environment?

A. Cloud service user

B. Cloud service business manager

C. Cloud service administrator

D. Cloud service integrator

Correct Answer: B

The cloud service business manager is responsible for overseeing business and billing administration, purchasing cloud services, and requesting audit reports when necessary


Question 5:

What is the biggest concern with hosting a key management system outside of the cloud environment?

A. Confidentiality

B. Portability

C. Availability

D. Integrity

Correct Answer: C

When a key management system is outside of the cloud environment hosting the application, availability is a primary concern because any access issues with the encryption keys will render the entire application unusable.


Question 6:

What does the management plane typically utilize to perform administrative functions on the hypervisors that it has access to?

A. Scripts

B. RDP

C. APIs

D. XML

Correct Answer: C

The functions of the management plane are typically exposed as a series of remote calls and function executions and as a set of APIs. These APIs are typically leveraged through either a client or a web portal, with the latter being the most common.


Question 7:

Which of the following publishes the most commonly used standard for data center design in regard to tiers and topologies?

A. IDCA

B. Uptime Institute

C. NFPA

D. BICSI

Correct Answer: B

The Uptime Institute publishes the most commonly used and widely known standard on data center tiers and topologies. It is based on a series of four tiers, with each progressive increase in number representing more stringent, reliable, and redundant systems for security, connectivity, fault tolerance, redundancy, and cooling.


Question 8:

What is used for local, physical access to hardware within a data center?

A. SSH

B. KVM

C. VPN

D. RDP

Correct Answer: B

Local, physical access in a data center is done via KVM (keyboard, video, mouse) switches.


Question 9:

Within an Infrastructure as a Service model, which of the following would NOT be a measured service?

A. CPU

B. Storage

C. Number of users

D. Memory

Correct Answer: C

Within IaaS, the number of users on a system is not relevant to the particular hosting model in regard to cloud resources. IaaS is focused on infrastructure needs of a system or application. Therefore, a factor such as the number of users that could affect licensing requirements, for example, would apply to the SaaS model, or in some instances to PaaS.


Question 10:

Which United States law is focused on accounting and financial practices of organizations?

A. Safe Harbor

B. GLBA

C. SOX

D. HIPAA

Correct Answer: C

The Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) Act is not an act that pertains to privacy or IT security directly, but rather regulates accounting and financial practices used by organizations. It was passed to protect stakeholders and shareholders from improper practices and errors, and it sets forth rules for compliance, regulated and enforced by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC). The main influence on IT systems and operations is the requirements it sets for data retention, specifically in regard to what types of records must be preserved and for how long.


Question 11:

What type of masking strategy involves making a separate and distinct copy of data with masking in place?

A. Dynamic

B. Replication

C. Static

D. Duplication

Correct Answer: C

With static masking, a separate and distinct copy of the data set is created with masking in place. This is typically done through a script or other process that takes a standard data set, processes it to mask the appropriate and predefined fields, and then outputs the data set as a new one with the completed masking done.


Question 12:

Which of the following storage types is most closely associated with a database-type storage implementation?

A. Object

B. Unstructured

C. Volume

D. Structured

Correct Answer: D

Structured storage involves organized and categorized data, which most closely resembles and operates like a database system would.


Question 13:

Which of the following roles is responsible for overseeing customer relationships and the processing of financial transactions?

A. Cloud service manager

B. Cloud service deployment

C. Cloud service business manager

D. Cloud service operations manager

Correct Answer: C

The cloud service business manager is responsible for overseeing business plans and customer relationships as well as processing financial transactions.


Question 14:

Which of the following security measures done at the network layer in a traditional data center are also applicable to a cloud environment?

A. Dedicated switches

B. Trust zones

C. Redundant network circuits

D. Direct connections

Correct Answer: B

Trust zones can be implemented to separate systems or tiers along logical lines for great security and access controls. Each zone can then have its own security controls and monitoring based on its particular needs.


Question 15:

Which of the following attempts to establish an international standard for eDiscovery processes and best practices?

A. ISO/IEC 31000

B. ISO/IEC 27050

C. ISO/IEC 19888

D. ISO/IEC 27001

Correct Answer: B

ISO/IEC 27050 strives to establish an internationally accepted standard for eDiscovery processes and best practices. It encompasses all steps of the eDiscovery process: identification, preservation, collection, processing, review, analysis, and the final production of the requested data.


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Question 1:

A security client needs a surveillance solution to support 239 Cameras. They expect to generate 2PB of data and require a 10Gb network infrastructure in a single rack. Which solution should you recommend to meet the customer requirements?

A. HPE Moonshot

B. HPE MSA

C. HPE Apollo Servers

D. HPE SimplVity 380

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-6064ENW.pdf


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer has been using VEEAM and the HPE StoreOnce 3620 shown in the exhibit to backup their environment. The customer\’s legal team has asked to double their retention times for all backup sets, and they are starting to run out of space on the StoreOnce. Which options could you recommend that the customer add to their existing configuration to accommodate the new requirement? (Select two. Each option represents a separate solution.)

A. HPE StoreOnce Cloud Bank Storage

B. HPE StoreOnce 3620 24TB Capacity Upgrade Kit

C. HPE StoreOnce Gen4 16Gb Fibre Channel Network Card

D. HPE StoreOnce Gen4 10/25Gb SFP Network card

E. HPE D3710 Storage Enclosure

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/uk/en/product-catalog/storage/disk-based-backup-systems/pip.specifications.hpe-storeonce-systems.1011014655.html


Question 3:

What is the correct cable type to use when connecting a pair of switches using Long Range (LR) Transceivers?

A. Direct Attach Cable (DAC)

B. Twin-Ax

C. Single Mode Fiber

D. Multi-mode Fiber

Correct Answer: C

Single-mode uses a single relatively straight beam of light, transmitted directly through a core of glass (or occasionally plastic) that\’s usually 50 microns across. Single-mode accommodates large power levels, and is almost exclusively used for Long Range (LR) applications.

Reference: https://info.hummingbirdnetworks.com/blog/answering-your-frequently-asked-s-about-different-types-of-10-gigabit-cisco-sfp-units


Question 4:

When is it appropriate for a customer to implement HPE OneView Standard?

A. To manage multiple servers

B. To monitor their services

C. To enable the Advanced iLO license

D. To update firmware

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/c04111367.pdf


Question 5:

You are creating a configuration for a new Nimble HF40 array. Which tool should you use to ensure that you include adequate cache in the configuration?

A. HPE NinjaSTARS

B. HPE Storage Sizer

C. HPE OneView

D. HPE SPOCK

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A customer needs a single, dual-processor server for an Enterprise Resource Planning solution for a single office. The customer application uses a mix of HDDs and SSDs and up to 3TB of RAM. Which HPE Solution should you propose?

A. HPE Synergy Solution

B. HPE Apollo 2000 Server

C. HPE ML350 Gen10

D. HPE ML110 Gen10

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-8758ENW.pdf


Question 7:

What should you configure to limit the scope of broadcast domains in an Ethernet network?

A. Trunks

B. VSAN

C. Static ARP

D. VLAN

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://assets.ext.hpe.com/is/content/hpedam/documents/a00069000-9999/a00069468/a00069468enw.pdf


Question 8:

You are validating a configuration prior to quoting it for the customer. You plan to propose the following configuration:

Two HPE DL380 Gen10 servers with dual processors, 256GB of memory, dual 10Gb NICs, SN1100Q 16Gb dual port FC HBA, dual 800W power supplies, and high temperature fan kit HPE Nimble HF20H with 11TB storage, 960GB of cache,

dual port 10GbE NIC, and 16Gb dual port FC adapter kit

Two SN3000B FC Switches

Which tool should you use to verify firmware compatibility between the storage and server components in this proposed solution?

A. HPE NinjaSTARS

B. HPE One Configuration Advanced

C. HPE OneView Advanced

D. HPE SPOCK

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

A Network administrator connects two switches together with multiple links of the same speed, duplex, and media type. The administrator expected the links to be aggregated, but they are not. The administrator confirmed that the ports are

part of the appropriate link aggregation groups and that the permitted VLANs match.

Switch A has the lower LACP System Priority.

Which LACP operation states describe the failure above?

A. Switch A: Active; Switch B: Active

B. Switch A: Active; Switch B: Passive

C. Switch A: Passive; Switch B: Passive

D. Switch A: Passive; Switch B: Active

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

A customer has a VMware environment with HPE ProLiant servers and Nimble storage. They have been using a Windows VM to provide file services for their employees. The customer is experiencing performance issues with the solution

due to memory constraints on the virtual environment.

What could be added to the existing environment that will provide dedicated file services with better performance that would still utilize the existing storage and backup solutions?

A. HPE StoreEver 30750

B. HPE Storage Performance File Controller

C. HPE StoreEasy 1460 Storage

D. HPE StoreEasy 1650 Expanded Storage

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

The information shown is displayed for a Nimble array you are installing. The customer\’s administrator has asked you for the speed at which the Nimble ports are connecting to their SAN switches, and you have run the command shown to

determine the number of gigabits per second used by this port connection.

What speed does the exhibit indicate is in use?

A. 18

B. 32

C. 6

D. 8

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

An HPE customer wants to perform is simplified update of firmware and drivers among their 100 HPE Gen9 and Gen10 racked servers. Which HPE software tool should the customer use to minimize the time required to perform this activity.

A. HPE Smart Update Manager

B. HPE OneView Standard

C. HPE ProLiant Support Pack

D. HPE iLO Amplifier Pack

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/us/en/servers/smart-update.html


Question 13:

A customer wants to install an HPE Proliant server that has a single dual port 10Gb NIC. Which NIC feature should you introduce to allow each 10Gb port to be seen as four individual adapters in the operating system?

A. NPAR

B. RoCE

C. FCoE

D. RDMA

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/getpdf.aspx/c04312719.pdf?ver=12


Question 14:

What is a feature of the MSA 1050 that will help your Storage Customer better utilize storage resources?

A. block, file, and object access

B. Triple parity RAID

C. Automated Tiering

D. 99.9999% guaranteed availability

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/A00015961ENW.pdf?


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is planning to deploy a branch office server rack What should you change in your configuration to ensure it meets the customer requirements?

A. Change the controller to an AF20.

B. Change the 10GbE Optical ports to Fibre Channel.

C. Change the 10GbE Optical ports to 10BaseT.

D. Change the controller to an HF20H.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

You are in the process of developing a business continuity plan for your network design. You must analyze data about weather patterns, maintenance history pertaining to leased buildings, and the frequency of power failures. For which purpose would you collect this information?

A. risk assessment

B. redundancy

C. high availability

D. disaster recovery

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

You are asked to provide a design proposal for a service provider network. The design must ensure that customers are able to send Layer 2 traffic between sites. In this scenario, which VPN technology would be used to accomplish this task?

A. IPsec VPN

B. Layer 3 VPN

C. GRE

D. EVPN

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

You are asked to provide a design proposal for an enterprise customer that currently has a three-tier switching infrastructure. The customer wants your design to collapse their Layer 2 infrastructure into two distinct layers. In this scenario, what are two benefits of moving to the new infrastructure? (Choose two.)

A. The total number of devices is increased.

B. The overall network performance is increased.

C. The number of connections between devices is decreased.

D. The number of protocols used is decreased.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, you are designing a Layer 2 data center and you want to make sure that all the links between the access tier and the aggregation tier are used. What should you do to accomplish this task?

A. Use VRRP on Agg-1 and Agg-2.

B. Place Agg-1 and Agg-2 in a Virtual Chassis.

C. Use RSTP on all devices.

D. Use BGP load balancing on all devices.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which Juniper automation tool enables administrators to write custom Python scripts that use the Junos XML API?

A. REST Explorer

B. JSNAPy

C. JET

D. PyEZ

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

What are two phases in Juniper\’s lifecycle approach when designing a network? (Choose two.)

A. plan

B. build

C. buy

D. oversee

Correct Answer: AB


Question 7:

You are designing a WAN implementation to securely connect two remote sites to the corporate office. A public Internet connection will be used for the connections. Which statement is true in this situation?

A. The connection should be secured using IPsec.

B. The WAN edge devices must support MPLS.

C. The connections support Layer 2 traffic bridging.

D. The service provider can isolate traffic in a private MPLS instance.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What is the first step of business continuity planning?

A. know your network

B. test the plan

C. assess the risk

D. formulate the plan

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

What are two features used to enable high availability? (Choose two.)

A. VRRP

B. chassis clustering

C. full-duplex mode

D. SNMP

Correct Answer: AB


Question 10:

You are evaluating an existing network to determine requirements for a network upgrade. In this scenario, which statement is true?

A. A network baseline identifies devices that do not have redundant components.

B. A network baseline identifies traffic growth patterns across network devices.

C. A network baseline identifies how many users are connected to the network.

D. A network baseline identifies the type and level of traffic load on the network.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

You are performing a risk assessment for a network design. Which statement is true in this scenario?

A. Some risks can be safely ignored.

B. The likelihood of a risk occurring should not be considered.

C. A network must be designed for an uptime of five nines.

D. All identified risks must have a mitigation plan in place.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which two statements are true regarding a Virtual Chassis? (Choose two.)

A. A Virtual Chassis must be configured on the same series but not the same model.

B. A Virtual Chassis supports up to 10 participating devices.

C. A Virtual Chassis supports only two participating devices.

D. A Virtual Chassis can be configured on mixed series and models.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 13:

Which two statements are true regarding greenfield projects? (Choose two.)

A. The amount of floor space and cooling are not defined as part of a greenfield project.

B. In greenfield projects, the existing floor space and cooling may need to be considered.

C. Greenfield projects are typically new networks with few or no restraints to consider.

D. Greenfield projects typically consist of existing network components with extensive integration required.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 14:

Which two pieces of information should be included in an RFP response? (Choose two.)

A. a list of contributing material including technical publications, training guides, and courseware used to build the proposed design

B. design details including information about the devices, protocols, and technologies included in the proposed design

C. configuration details including proposed devices, protocols, and technologies included in the proposed design

D. a network topology including a high-level logical design as well as low-level physical design of the proposed network

Correct Answer: BD


Question 15:

Which two features would cause latency in a WAN connection? (Choose two.)

A. IPS

B. syslog

C. telemetry

D. UTM antivirus

Correct Answer: AD


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Question 1:

A company has deployed an e-commerce web application in a new AWS account. An Amazon RDS for MySQL Multi-AZ DB instance is part of this deployment with a database-1.xxxxxxxxxxxx.us-east1.rds.amazonaws.com endpoint listening on port 3306. The company\’s Database Specialist is able to log in to MySQL and run queries from the bastion host using these details.

When users try to utilize the application hosted in the AWS account, they are presented with a generic error message. The application servers are logging a “could not connect to server: Connection times out” error message to Amazon CloudWatch Logs.

What is the cause of this error?

A. The user name and password the application is using are incorrect.

B. The security group assigned to the application servers does not have the necessary rules to allow inbound connections from the DB instance.

C. The security group assigned to the DB instance does not have the necessary rules to allow inbound connections from the application servers.

D. The user name and password are correct, but the user is not authorized to use the DB instance.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://forums.aws.amazon.com/thread.jspa?threadID=129700


Question 2:

An AWS CloudFormation stack that included an Amazon RDS DB instance was accidentally deleted and recent data was lost. A Database Specialist needs to add RDS settings to the CloudFormation template to reduce the chance of accidental instance data loss in the future.

Which settings will meet this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Set DeletionProtection to True

B. Set MultiAZ to True

C. Set TerminationProtection to True

D. Set DeleteAutomatedBackups to False

E. Set DeletionPolicy to Delete

F. Set DeletionPolicy to Retain

Correct Answer: ACF

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSCloudFormation/latest/UserGuide/aws-attributedeletionpolicy.html https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/cloudformation-accidental-updates/


Question 3:

A Database Specialist is troubleshooting an application connection failure on an Amazon Aurora DB cluster with multiple Aurora Replicas that had been running with no issues for the past 2 months. The connection failure lasted for 5 minutes and corrected itself after that. The Database Specialist reviewed the Amazon RDS events and determined a failover event occurred at that time. The failover process took around 15 seconds to complete.

What is the MOST likely cause of the 5-minute connection outage?

A. After a database crash, Aurora needed to replay the redo log from the last database checkpoint

B. The client-side application is caching the DNS data and its TTL is set too high

C. After failover, the Aurora DB cluster needs time to warm up before accepting client connections

D. There were no active Aurora Replicas in the Aurora DB cluster

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A company is deploying a solution in Amazon Aurora by migrating from an on-premises system. The IT department has established an AWS Direct Connect link from the company\’s data center. The company\’s Database Specialist has selected the option to require SSL/TLS for connectivity to prevent plaintext data from being set over the network. The migration appears to be working successfully, and the data can be queried from a desktop machine.

Two Data Analysts have been asked to query and validate the data in the new Aurora DB cluster. Both Analysts are unable to connect to Aurora. Their user names and passwords have been verified as valid and the Database Specialist can connect to the DB cluster using their accounts. The Database Specialist also verified that the security group configuration allows network from all corporate IP addresses.

What should the Database Specialist do to correct the Data Analysts’ inability to connect?

A. Restart the DB cluster to apply the SSL change.

B. Instruct the Data Analysts to download the root certificate and use the SSL certificate on the connection string to connect.

C. Add explicit mappings between the Data Analysts’ IP addresses and the instance in the security group assigned to the DB cluster.

D. Modify the Data Analysts’ local client firewall to allow network traffic to AWS.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A company is concerned about the cost of a large-scale, transactional application using Amazon DynamoDB that only needs to store data for 2 days before it is deleted. In looking at the tables, a Database Specialist notices that much of the data is months old, and goes back to when the application was first deployed.

What can the Database Specialist do to reduce the overall cost?

A. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and create an AWS Glue transformation to delete entries more than 2 days old.

B. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and enable DynamoDB Streams on each table.

C. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and enable time to live (TTL) on each table.

D. Create an Amazon CloudWatch Events event to export the data to Amazon S3 daily using AWS Data Pipeline and then truncate the Amazon DynamoDB table.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A clothing company uses a custom ecommerce application and a PostgreSQL database to sell clothes to thousands of users from multiple countries. The company is migrating its application and database from its on-premises data center to the AWS Cloud. The company has selected Amazon EC2 for the application and Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL for the database. The company requires database passwords to be changed every 60 days. A Database Specialist needs to ensure that the credentials used by the web application to connect to the database are managed securely.

Which approach should the Database Specialist take to securely manage the database credentials?

A. Store the credentials in a text file in an Amazon S3 bucket. Restrict permissions on the bucket to the IAM role associated with the instance profile only. Modify the application to download the text file and retrieve the credentials on start up. Update the text file every 60 days.

B. Configure IAM database authentication for the application to connect to the database. Create an IAM user and map it to a separate database user for each ecommerce user. Require users to update their passwords every 60 days.

C. Store the credentials in AWS Secrets Manager. Restrict permissions on the secret to only the IAM role associated with the instance profile. Modify the application to retrieve the credentials from Secrets Manager on start up. Configure the rotation interval to 60 days.

D. Store the credentials in an encrypted text file in the application AMI. Use AWS KMS to store the key for decrypting the text file. Modify the application to decrypt the text file and retrieve the credentials on start up. Update the text file and publish a new AMI every 60 days.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A financial services company is developing a shared data service that supports different applications from throughout the company. A Database Specialist designed a solution to leverage Amazon ElastiCache for Redis with cluster mode enabled to enhance performance and scalability. The cluster is configured to listen on port 6379.

Which combination of steps should the Database Specialist take to secure the cache data and protect it from unauthorized access? (Choose three.)

A. Enable in-transit and at-rest encryption on the ElastiCache cluster.

B. Ensure that Amazon CloudWatch metrics are configured in the ElastiCache cluster.

C. Ensure the security group for the ElastiCache cluster allows all inbound traffic from itself and inbound traffic on TCP port 6379 from trusted clients only.

D. Create an IAM policy to allow the application service roles to access all ElastiCache API actions.

E. Ensure the security group for the ElastiCache clients authorize inbound TCP port 6379 and port 22 traffic from the trusted ElastiCache cluster\’s security group.

F. Ensure the cluster is created with the auth-token parameter and that the parameter is used in all subsequent commands.

Correct Answer: ABE

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/getting-started/tutorials/setting-up-a-redis-cluster-with-amazonelasticache/


Question 8:

A company is running an Amazon RDS for PostgeSQL DB instance and wants to migrate it to an Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster. The current database is 1 TB in size. The migration needs to have minimal downtime.

What is the FASTEST way to accomplish this?

A. Create an Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster. Set up replication from the source RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance using AWS DMS to the target DB cluster.

B. Use the pg_dump and pg_restore utilities to extract and restore the RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance to the Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster.

C. Create a database snapshot of the RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance and use this snapshot to create the Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster.

D. Migrate data from the RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance to an Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster using an Aurora Replica. Promote the replica during the cutover.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A Database Specialist is migrating a 2 TB Amazon RDS for Oracle DB instance to an RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance using AWS DMS. The source RDS Oracle DB instance is in a VPC in the us-east-1 Region. The target RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance is in a VPC in the use-west-2 Region.

Where should the AWS DMS replication instance be placed for the MOST optimal performance?

A. In the same Region and VPC of the source DB instance

B. In the same Region and VPC as the target DB instance

C. In the same VPC and Availability Zone as the target DB instance

D. In the same VPC and Availability Zone as the source DB instance

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

The Development team recently executed a database script containing several data definition language (DDL) and data manipulation language (DML) statements on an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster. The release accidentally deleted thousands of rows from an important table and broke some application functionality. This was discovered 4 hours after the release. Upon investigation, a Database Specialist tracked the issue to a DELETE command in the script with an incorrect WHERE clause filtering the wrong set of rows. The Aurora DB cluster has Backtrack enabled with an 8-hour backtrack window. The Database Administrator also took a manual snapshot of the DB cluster before the release started. The database needs to be returned to the correct state as quickly as possible to resume full application functionality. Data loss must be minimal. How can the Database Specialist accomplish this?

A. Quickly rewind the DB cluster to a point in time before the release using Backtrack.

B. Perform a point-in-time recovery (PITR) of the DB cluster to a time before the release and copy the deleted rows from the restored database to the original database.

C. Restore the DB cluster using the manual backup snapshot created before the release and change the application configuration settings to point to the new DB cluster.

D. Create a clone of the DB cluster with Backtrack enabled. Rewind the cloned cluster to a point in time before the release. Copy deleted rows from the clone to the original database.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

A company is load testing its three-tier production web application deployed with an AWS CloudFormation template on AWS. The Application team is making changes to deploy additional Amazon EC2 and AWS Lambda resources to expand the load testing capacity. A Database Specialist wants to ensure that the changes made by the Application team will not change the Amazon RDS database resources already deployed. Which combination of steps would allow the Database Specialist to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. Review the stack drift before modifying the template

B. Create and review a change set before applying it

C. Export the database resources as stack outputs

D. Define the database resources in a nested stack

E. Set a stack policy for the database resources

Correct Answer: AD


Question 12:

A company is hosting critical business data in an Amazon Redshift cluster. Due to the sensitive nature of the data, the cluster is encrypted at rest using AWS KMS. As a part of disaster recovery requirements, the company needs to copy the Amazon Redshift snapshots to another Region.

Which steps should be taken in the AWS Management Console to meet the disaster recovery requirements?

A. Create a new KMS customer master key in the source Region. Switch to the destination Region, enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region snapshots, and use the KMS key of the source Region.

B. Create a new IAM role with access to the KMS key. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region replication using the new IAM role, and use the KMS key of the source Region.

C. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region snapshots in the source Region, and create a snapshot copy grant and use a KMS key in the destination Region.

D. Create a new KMS customer master key in the destination Region and create a new IAM role with access to the new KMS key. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region replication in the source Region and use the KMS key of the destination Region.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/redshift/latest/mgmt/working-with-snapshots.html


Question 13:

A company has a production Amazon Aurora Db cluster that serves both online transaction processing (OLTP) transactions and compute-intensive reports. The reports run for 10% of the total cluster uptime while the OLTP transactions run all the time. The company has benchmarked its workload and determined that a six-node Aurora DB cluster is appropriate for the peak workload. The company is now looking at cutting costs for this DB cluster, but needs to have a sufficient number of nodes in the cluster to support the workload at different times. The workload has not changed since the previous benchmarking exercise. How can a Database Specialist address these requirements with minimal user involvement?

A. Split up the DB cluster into two different clusters: one for OLTP and the other for reporting. Monitor and set up replication between the two clusters to keep data consistent.

B. Review all evaluate the peak combined workload. Ensure that utilization of the DB cluster node is at an acceptable level. Adjust the number of instances, if necessary.

C. Use the stop cluster functionality to stop all the nodes of the DB cluster during times of minimal workload. The cluster can be restarted again depending on the workload at the time.

D. Set up automatic scaling on the DB cluster. This will allow the number of reader nodes to adjust automatically to the reporting workload, when needed.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

A company is running a finance application on an Amazon RDS for MySQL DB instance. The application is

governed by multiple financial regulatory agencies. The RDS DB instance is set up with security groups to

allow access to certain Amazon EC2 servers only. AWS KMS is used for encryption at rest.

Which step will provide additional security?

A. Set up NACLs that allow the entire EC2 subnet to access the DB instance

B. Disable the master user account

C. Set up a security group that blocks SSH to the DB instance

D. Set up RDS to use SSL for data in transit

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/database/applying-best-practices-for-securing-sensitive-data-inamazon-rds/


Question 15:

A company needs a data warehouse solution that keeps data in a consistent, highly structured format. The company requires fast responses for end-user queries when looking at data from the current year, and users must have access to the full 15-year dataset, when needed. This solution also needs to handle a fluctuating number incoming queries. Storage costs for the 100 TB of data must be kept low.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Leverage an Amazon Redshift data warehouse solution using a dense storage instance type while keeping all the data on local Amazon Redshift storage. Provision enough instances to support high demand.

B. Leverage an Amazon Redshift data warehouse solution using a dense storage instance to store the most recent data. Keep historical data on Amazon S3 and access it using the Amazon Redshift Spectrum layer. Provision enough instances to support high demand.

C. Leverage an Amazon Redshift data warehouse solution using a dense storage instance to store the most recent data. Keep historical data on Amazon S3 and access it using the Amazon Redshift Spectrum layer. Enable Amazon Redshift Concurrency Scaling.

D. Leverage an Amazon Redshift data warehouse solution using a dense storage instance to store the most recent data. Keep historical data on Amazon S3 and access it using the Amazon Redshift Spectrum layer. Leverage Amazon Redshift elastic resize.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Which will you NOT use when editing a Titleblock?

A. Text

B. Images

C. Lines

D. Phases

E. Labels

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which statement about camera view is FALSE?

A. You can modify camera position and target points in a 3D view only

B. You can change the crop region by moving the top, bottom, right, and left clip planes

C. The camera target point defines the initial axis of rotation for a camera view

D. You can modify detail level and ,model graphics style of camera views

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which viewport instance properly sets the display style to Hidden Line or Wireframe?

A. View Scale

B. Detail Level

C. Model Graphics Style

D. Detail Number

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

When you create a floor on a level, the bottom of the floor is placed on that level, with the thickness projecting upward.

A. False

B. True

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which TWO tools help you save steps while placing many window types in a project?

A. Move

B. Split Face

C. Match Type

D. Create Similar

Correct Answer: CD


Question 6:

Which key rotates a component counter clockwise by 90 degrees?

A. SPACEBAR

B. CTRL

C. ENTER

D. ALT

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

What is the first step that you perform to change a section view to a detail view?

A. Select the section or callout symbol

B. On the View menu, click View Properties

C. Create a new section or callout view

D. Open the parent view

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

You can create a walkthrough by placing keyframes to generate a camera path in a plan view.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

When a family with labeled dimensions as instance parameters is placed in a project, what controls display to help you work with it?

A. Shared Parameters

B. Shape handles

C. Place families

D. Templates

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which tool copies walls or lines at a numerically assigned distance?

A. Align

B. Trim

C. Split

D. Offset

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which standard views are created by the default project template?

A. Roof Plan

B. North Elevation

C. Site Plan

D. Level 1 Floor Plan

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 12:

What connects the keyframes that you place in a plan view while drawing a walkthrough path?

A. Line

B. Field

C. Spline

D. Dashed line

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which settings are included when you define a project environment?

A. Line Styles

B. Weather

C. Display

D. Colours

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 14:

Which key flips the orientation of a compound wall in plan view?

A. tab

B. spacebar

C. ENTER

D. SHIFT

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which statement about Detail Views is FALSE?

A. You can only delete them from the parent view

B. By default they appear only in the parent view

C. They automatically have a different view scale from the parent view

D. They appear in a separate section of the Project Brower

E. You create them with the Callout or Section Tool

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Your customer has implemented Oracle Project Portfolio Management Cloud recently and they have hired new employees for their Professions Services business. These employees are set up in Oracle Human Capital Management Cloud, but the Project Administrators are unable to add them as resources in the Planning Resource Breakdown Structure.

What are three conditions for new employees to show up in the list?

A. All new employees created as persons must have an active project role.

B. All new employees created as persons must have an active supervisor.

C. All new employees created as persons must have an active assignment.

D. All new employees created as persons must be assigned to a department.

E. Current date is before the effective date of the resource, and you did not enable the “Include people with future-dated effective start dates” option during the search.

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 2:

You configure one OTBI using Project Cross Subject Area Analysis Real Time. You notice that all measures (Budget, Forecast, Cost, Commitments, Revenue, and Invoice) are not available for Bill-To-Customer and Contract and Contract Line dimensions.

Identify the reason for this behavior.

A. The Bill-To-Customer dimension applies to Invoice measures, and the Contract and Contract Line dimensions apply to Revenue and Invoice measures.

B. The Bill-To-Customer dimension does not apply to Invoice measures, but the Contract and Contract Line dimensions apply only to Revenue and Invoice measures.

C. The Bill-To-Customer dimension applies only to Invoice measures, but the Contract and Contract Line dimensions do not apply to Revenue and Invoice measures.

D. The Contract and Contract Line dimensions apply only to Invoice measures.

E. The Bill-To-Customer dimension applies only to Revenue and Invoice measures.

Correct Answer: E


Question 3:

You recently made some changes to a project contract and the current status of the contract is Under Amendment. Identify the correct sequence of activities that can take place on that contract.

A. On Hold > Pending Approval > Active

B. On Hold > Pending Acceptance > Active

C. Pending Approval > Pending Acceptance > Active

D. Pending Acceptance > Pending Approval > Active

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/common/FASCC/FASCC1124283.htm


Question 4:

You create a contract with two contract lines: Line 1 and Line 2. You create separate bill plans: A for contract Line 1 and B for contract Line 2, with a different bill set number (11 for Bill Plan A and 22 for Bill Plan B). Then Bill Plan A is allocated against Project X – Task 10, and Bill Plan B is allocated against Project Y – Task 30.

Based on the preceding setup, you are generating invoices. Identify two correct statements about invoice generation in this scenario.

A. Invoice generation does not depend on bill plan. The invoices are created based on the contract line.

B. Both the contract lines create only a single invoice because they are using the same contract.

C. Two invoices are created using the same contract.

D. Bill set number drives the grouping of transactions.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 5:

Your customer wants a project start date to cascade to the project tasks, bust does not want the finish date to be cascade. Identify the default setup in a project template that can be used to enable this.

A. Do not cascade date changes.

B. Cascade change to the start date and the finish date.

C. Cascade change to the finish date.

D. Cascade change to the start date.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E25054_01/fusionapps.1111/e20384/F552279AN65801.htm


Question 6:

As you go through the first-quarter close for your customer, you notice that the burden amounts calculated do not seem to be right. Based on the calculations, you notice that the amounts calculated are not considering the burden schedule override at a task level, which was done during the second month of the quarter.

Identify the reason for this problem.

A. You can enable automatic reprocessing of expenditure items processed before the burden schedule change.

B. Only new expenditure items charged to the task use the new burden schedule; expenditure items processed earlier cannot be reprocessed.

C. All expenditure items charged to the task use the new burden schedule.

D. Only new expenditure items charged to the task use the new burden schedule; expenditure items processed earlier can be manually marked for reprocessing.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/r13_update17b/projectcs_gs/OAPJC/OAPJC1071490.htm#OAPJC1071482


Question 7:

You are implementing Project Portfolio Management for a global professional services organization. In their Consulting Services line of business, it is common to use resources from different business units based on the skills required. Therefore, cross-charge transactions happen between business units within the same legal entity. Transfer price calculations need to be based on raw costs, with no further adjustments to transfer price.

Identify two setups that can drive this borrowed and lent agreement.

A. Transfer price basis must be Raw Cost and calculation method must be Rate Schedule.

B. Transfer price basis must be Raw Cost and calculation method must be Basis Only.

C. A document entry such as straight time must be enabled for cross-charge transactions.

D. Transfer price basis must be Burdened Cost, and calculation method must be Burden Rate Schedule.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 8:

You cannot generate invoices for a project expenditure item. After running the Generate Invoices program for a billable expenditure item and active contract, the process completes successfully but without any billing, and does not provide any error logs. The program\’s processing summary is as follows: Billing Event Errors 0 Ineligible Contracts 0 Successful Billing Events Created 0 Ineligible Contract Lines 0 Billing Transaction Exception Warnings 0 Ineligible Associated Projects 0 Draft Invoice Exception Errors 0 Ineligible Events 0 Draft Invoice Exception Warnings 0 Successful Draft Invoices 0

What was the invoice method classification set to that caused this behavior?

A. Amount Based

B. Percent Complete

C. Rate Based

D. As Incurred

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E51367_01/projectop_gs/OAPJB/F1087458AN139C2.htm


Question 9:

Your customer wants to automatically allocate unassigned asset lines and common costs across multiple assets based on the construction-in-process cost of each asset.

Identify the asset allocation method that you must use as the default method while configuring project types to meet this requirement.

A. Estimated Cost

B. Standard Unit Cost

C. Current Cost

D. Spread Evenly

E. Actual Unit

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel9/projectcs_gs/OAPJC/F1071495AN175A1.htm


Question 10:

Which three Cost Collection Flexfield core attributes can be derived during import if not explicitly entered in a transaction document?

A. Work Type

B. Capitalizable Flag

C. Billable Flag

D. Expenditure Type

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 11:

Your customer has the following setups on the project plan type that they are using for their projects: Use Task Planned Dates as Task Assignment Dates = Yes Automatically Roll Up Task Planned Dates = Yes Synchronize Task Transaction Dates with Planned Dates = No

With these setups in place, you perform the following actions:

1.

Create a new subtask (Sub Task 1) with a start date of 15-Jun-2016 on the project that has as start date of 01-Jul-2016.

2.

Create another new subtask (Sub Task 2) after the previous action is saved. What would the correct behavior of the application be after these actions?

A. After the creation and saving of Sub Task 1, Task Start Date would be changed to 01-Jul-2016 and Sub Task 2 would be created with 01-Jul-2016.

B. After the creation of Sub Task 1, Project Start Date would remain unchanged as 01-Jul-2016 and Sub Task 2 would be created with 15-Jun-2016.

C. Project Start Date would remain unchanged as 01-Jul-2016 for both actions but the start dates on both subtasks would remain 15-Jun-2016.

D. After the creation of Sub Task 1, Project Start Date would be changed to 15-Jun-2016 and Sub Task 2 would be created with 15-Jun-2016.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which four standard objects can you configure to include business specific attributes by using Application Composer for Project Execution Management?

A. Backlog Items

B. Project Issues

C. Project Change Orders

D. Project Deliverables

E. Project Resource Request

F. Project Milestones

Correct Answer: ABDE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/project-portfolio-management/18b/oapex/define-common-project-execution-options.html#OAPEX3079890


Question 13:

What are three configuration items that you need to set up by using the project Organizations functional area in Project Financial management configurations?

A. Manage Project Organization Classifications

B. Manage Business Unit

C. Manage Project Unit Options

D. Manage Project Unit Organizations

E. Manage Project Types

Correct Answer: ABE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E60665_01/projectcs_gs/OAPFM/F1125343AN100B5.htm


Question 14:

Your company creates a separate project for infrastructure services, so as to track these costs separately and then allocate them to various projects that use the services of the infrastructure team. You want to allocate these costs by first attributing a fixed percentage of the source amount to each project and then spread it across tasks based on the actual labor hours charged to each task.

Which allocation basis method would you use to meet this requirement?

A. prorate

B. target percentage and prorate

C. spread evenly

D. target percentage and spread evenly

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which three tools are available for accessing REST APIs?

A. Programming Language

B. Web Browser

C. cURL

D. Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence

Correct Answer: BCD


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Question 1:

View the exhibits.

Based on the page layout, what is wrong with the search page and how should you fix it?

A. The Add actions should not be available; check the component definition foe the Item Label

B. Include History and Correction should be displayed; check the Internet tab of the Component Properties dialog box

C. The Add action should not be available; check the Internet tab of the Component Properties dialog box

D. Include History and Correction should be displayed; check the Use tab of the Component Properties dialog box

E. The Add action should not be available; check the Use tab of the Component Properties dialog box

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57990_01/pt853pbh2/eng/pt/tpst/task_WorkingwithSearchPages-027de6.html#topofpage


Question 2:

Which three actions occur during the component build process? (Choose three.)

A. Component record RowInit PeopleCode runs

B. Record field FieldFormula PeopleCode runs

C. Component record RowInsert PeopleCode runs

D. All component-level PeopleCode runs

E. Record field RowInsert PeopleCode runs

F. Record field RowInit PeopleCode runs

G. All rows in the record are loaded into the component buffer

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 3:

Which PeopleCode program will take the input student name values and produce the output values?

A. B. C. D. E. F.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

An end user saves the data after making a change to their personal address, and the system updates the table for that page. In this case, that personal address information is also stored in a table used to generate reports. Upon saving the

address, the system also updates the equivalent information stored in the reporting table.

What form of maintaining referential integrity has been implemented in this scenario?

A. Parent-child relationship

B. Occurs level

C. Prompt table edit

D. PeopleCode running a SQLExec statement

E. Expert entry

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which two statements are true about how PeopleCode on the SavePreChange and SavePostChange events is processed? (Choose two.)

A. When placed at the component record level, such PeopleCode triggers a Save when a row is changed

B. When placed at the component record level, such PeopleCode runs once per row when the user clicks Save

C. When placed at the component record level, such PeopleCode runs once when the user clicks Save

D. When placed at the component level, such PeopleCode triggers a Save when data on the page is changed

E. When placed at the component level, such PeopleCode runs once when the user clicks Save

F. When placed at the component level, such PeopleCode runs once per row when the user clicks Save

Correct Answer: BD


Question 6:

Review the definition of the Calculate user-defined function.

Then, review the invocation of this Calculate function in a FieldChange program:

Which two corrections are required to allow these PeopleCode programs to be saved as syntactically correct programs that produce valid results? (Choose two.)

A. In the FieldChange program, move line 3 to become line 1

B. In the function definition, delete the in and out modifiers on line 1

C. Delete line 3 from the function definition. In the FieldChange program, add the following as line 5: andincr = 0;

D. Replace line 4 in the FieldChange program with the following:

Correct Answer: BD


Question 7:

Select two true statements about translate values. (Select two.)

A. You can assign translate values to any character field that is four characters long or less

B. The default label for a page field is the translate long name

C. You can inactivate any translate value by changing the value of the effective status field to “I”

D. You must maintain translate values through Application Designer

E. You must enter a translate short name

Correct Answer: AE


Question 8:

The following PeopleCode program compares two editable fields on a component.

On which event or events should the program be placed?

A. FieldEdit and RowInit

B. SaveEdit and SavePreChange

C. SaveEdit

D. FieldChange and SavePreChange

E. SaveEdit and RowInit

F. FieldEdit

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E41633_01/pt853pbh1/eng/pt/tpcd/task_PeopleCodeEvents-074aba.html


Question 9:

You are testing the Course Session Details page. You click the Lookup button for the Instructor field and select a name. When you tab off the field, a message is displayed.

What caused this issue and how do you fix it?

A. The menu definition associated with this page has the wrong search record; examine the menu definition

B. The page field definition has the wrong prompt table assigned; examine the page definition

C. The component definition associated with this page has the wrong search record; examine the component definition

D. The record field definition has the wrong prompt table assigned; examine the record definition

E. You selected an incorrect value from the prompt; select a different value

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

While in the office on his desktop computer, a user personalizes his fluid homepage by adding a tile for the My contacts component. The next day at the airport, the user attempts the access the My Contacts component using his smartphone. Unfortunately, he cannot see the My Contacts tile on his field homepage.

Why is the user unable to find the My Contacts tile on his fluid homepage when using his smartphone?

A. The user does not have the Smartphone Access check box enabled in his personalization\’s

B. The smartphone does not have a supported version of its operating system

C. The style, ps_homepage-phone, has not been applied on the Fluid tab of the Component Properties dialog box

D. The Display on Small Form Factor Homepage check box has not been selected on the Fluid tab of the Component Properties dialog box

E. The component does not contain any pages of type Small Form Factor

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

When you attempt to drag a subrecord onto a page, the page definition displays an error. What is the reason for this?

A. The Use tab on the Page Properties dialog box does not have the Page Size field set to Auto-size so that the page automatically expands to facilitate all the fields in the subrecord

B. The subrecord definition does not have the Record Type value set to SubRecord

C. The Use tab on the Record Properties dialog box for the subrecord definition does not have the Parent record field set correctly in the Record Relationship settings

D. The Page Type Field is not set to be Subpage on the Use tab of the Page Properties dialog box

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

You surround a set of page controls with a group box on a fluid page. When rendered in HTML, what tag will those page controls be within?

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

F.

Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E99483_01/pt857pbr1/eng/pt/tflu/concept_WorkingWithOtherPageControls.html


Question 13:

View the exhibits.

Based on the page layout, what changes are necessary for the page tab order?

A. Field IDs should be in the following order: 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 5, 4, 8, 9

B. Field IDs should be in the following order: 1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 6, 7, 9, 8

C. Field IDs should be in the following order: 1, 2, 3, 6, 5, 4, 7, 8, 9

D. Field IDs should be in the following order: 1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9

E. Tab order is correct, no changes are required

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Examine this PeopleCode statement:

andDate = ORDER.DATE;

Select the object-oriented equivalent.

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

E. Option E

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You are asked to create a new field definition with a field label that includes a line break for Curriculum Developer. How should you enter the label?

A. Curriculum/Developer

B. Curriculum\Developer

C. Curriculum/nDeveloper

D. Curriculum
Developer

E. Curriculum\nDeveloper

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

The VMware SD-WAN solution is comprised of Orchestrator, Gateway, and Edge. The architecture ensures separation and secure communication between the management, control, and data plane of the solution. The management plane consists of the VMware SD-WAN Orchestrator, and the control plane is comprised of the VMware SO-WAN Gateway/ Controller. Which statement correctly describes this situation?

A. VMware SD-WAN Edges/Gateways establishes a Transport Layer Security (TLS) 1 2 encrypted session to the VMware SU-WAN Orchestrator

B. To make the entire solution to work property, TCP port 443 and HOP port 500 and UDP port 4500 are required to open in the firewall rule, if Edge is deployed behind a Firewall.

C. There is impact on data plane when the Edge loses connectivity to the management plane. The operator only loses the visibility of the Edge from Orchestrator and cannot make configuration changes on the Edge until the management plane connectivity is resumed.

D. Traffic between VMware SD-WAN Edges and from VMware SD-WAN Edges to VMware SD-WAN Gateways uses VMware SD-WAN Management Protocol (VCMP) tunneling over User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port 2427. secured with Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Employees with an Apple iOS device have been causing congestion on the company\’s internet What should an administrator configure to target these devices when creating a Business policy for this issue?

A. Action Priority

B. Action Network Service

C. Match Source

D. Match Destination

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A customer has deployed VMware SD_WAN solution An administrator asked to imported additional security for traffic going to internet without investigating in new hardware solutions.

A. Service chaining with DFW in NSX-V

B. Service chaining with Zscaler Cloud Security Service

C. Service chaining with DFW in NSX-1

D. Service chaining with AWS Cloud Security

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A service provider needs to upgrade a gateway to a new software version. Which step in needed to complete the upgrade process?

A. Re-assign the Gateway to a new gateway Pool with the appropriate software version, and then run `sudo apt-get update\’\’ from the Gateway console.

B. Create a new disk partition to save the new software image to, modify the boot order via the Gateway BIOS to boot to the new partition, and then reboot the gateway.

C. From the Orchestrator, select the check-box next to the appropriate gateway, choose `\’Assign Software image”, and then select the version for the upgrade.

D. Copy the new image to/var/lib/velocloud/software_update.tar, and then run the upgrade the script from the console.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A customer is looking to have Quality of Service (QoS), resource allocations, link/path steering, and error correction applied automatically based on applications. Which component of VMware SD-WAN helps the customer achieve this requirement?

A. Overlay Flow Control

B. High Availability Configuration

C. Business Policy Framework

D. Branch Site Topologies

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which deployment model ensures that management and control plane is cloud-delivered while data continues to flow on-premises between VMware SD-WAN nodes that remain on-premises?

A. Hosted SD-WAN Orchestrator/Controller

B. On-premises SD-WAN Orchestrator/Controller

C. Partially on-premises

D. All on-premises

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Company a has recently acquired Company B, which has two remote office. Company A is using VMware hosted Cloud Gateways, and Company B is using a VMware SD-WAN with a Hub-Spoke topology. Which VEware Cloud VPN solution an administrator configure to establish connectivity between the offices of Company A and Company B?

A. Site-to-Site VPN

B. Branch to CASH

C. Branch to Branch VPN

D. Branch to Non VMware SU-WAN Site

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which port is used for the high availability connection between the two Edges on a pair of Edge 510s?

A. Any port may be chosen.

B. GE1

C. SFP1

D. GE4

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A service provider needs to ensure that the NOC is notified proactively in the event that an Edge interface

loses connectivity to its WAN provider.

Which three methods are available for generating these alerts? (Choose three.)

A. Slack notification

B. Text/SMS

C. Push notification via the VMware SD WAN mobile app

D. SNMP Trap

E. Webhook

F. Dyinq Gasp

Correct Answer: BCF


Question 10:

A customer has a 10,000 branch site requirement arid must use a hub cluster in their design. Which Mware SO- WAN best practice should be used when designing the cluster?

A. BGP on WAN side

B. Static routing

C. MP BGP south bound

D. BGP on LAN side

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which statement is correct about VMware SD-WAN Orchestrator user roles and their associate privileges?

A. Customer Support User can view and manage then company\’s network

B. Standard Admin User can view but cannot manage their customer.

C. Superuser: User can view but cannot create additional admin.

D. Enterprise read only: User can view but not modify configurations.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A customer is using VMware vSphere in their data center. An administrator is asked to deploy SD- WAN Edges for a Proof of Concept as soon as possible. Which deployment option is the roost cost and time effective?

A. Deploy a virtual appliance on ESXi

B. Purchase bare metal Edge

C. Deploy a virtual appliance in AWS

D. Deploy a virtual appliance on KVM

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which VMware SR-WAN component runs the Deep Application Recognition Engine?

A. VMware SD WAN Orchestrator

B. VMware SD-WAN Controller

C. VMware SD-WAN Gateway

D. VMware SD-WAN Edge

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

A customer would like to use a VNF firewall on the VMware SU-WAN 600 series Edge. Where do the Edge firewall rules of the VNF apply?

A. Underlay

B. Overlay

C. WAN side

D. LAN side

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

A service provider wants to offer a common service from its data center via VMware SD-WAN Partner Gateway to many customers with overlapping IP addresses. Which configuration must be implemented?

A. Define multiple segments tor each customer

B. Enable NAT hand off under hand off static routes configuration

C. Enable tag type QinQ under hand off interface configuration

D. Configure source policy-based NAT under business- policies configuration

Correct Answer: A