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Question 1:

When importing, a data source output shows columns A and B. It is necessary for Column B to be joined with Column A, but the information in column B must appear first. With Column B selected, which of the following Column Actions can MOST efficiently accomplish this task?

A. Compress Columns

B. Suffix with Another Column

C. Prefix with Another Column

D. Merge with Another Column

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

The Filters and Histograms feature in Analyst\’s Notebook allows the user to do all of the following EXCEPT for the ability to:

A. use analysis attributes for analyzing data.

B. isolate data based on filters or histograms selected.

C. drill-down into the data to do more in depth analysis.

D. view the data in different ways while at the same time changing the underlying data.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Review the sample chart here:

Which is the BEST Visual Search query to find account activity on 01 January 2011 from 9:00 AM to 5:00 PM? Note: The difference in highlighting is not a factor in determining the correct answer.

A. Exhibit A

B. Exhibit B

C. Exhibit C

D. Exhibit D

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Compared to other parts of the network, which entity has the HIGHEST degree centrality?

A. Jennifer REILAND

B. Heather JACKSON

C. Abigail ROSS

D. Edward INGRAM

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Once Analyst\’s Notebook has identified possible matching entities, how are duplicates removed?

A. Manually change the identity of one entity to match the other entity

B. Select the matching entities and press Ctrl D simultaneously

C. Select each of the matching entities and click the Link button.

D. Select each of the matching entities and click the Merge button.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Examine the image here:

“Black 2010 Mercedes-Benz C63” is entered in what location?

A. Attribute

B. Description

C. Card Summary

D. Card Description

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which file format CANNOT be imported into Analyst\’s Notebook?

A. Text file (*.txt)

B. Word file (*.doc)

C. Excel Spreadsheet file (*.xls)

D. Comma-Separated Value (Comma Delimited) file (*.csv)

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

An intelligence analyst is in the process of importing financial records. Using Directed Multiplicity, the analyst should make sure the link label properties are correct so that the results will show the combined number of times transactions took place between accounts. Which of the following will produce the intended results?

A. Link Label Value

B. Sum Numeric Links

C. Number of occurrences

D. Connection Label Value

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A researcher is importing an Excel worksheet into Analyst Notebook. The researcher wants to ensure that all dates are correctly transferred to a chart. The date and time format step is as follows:

Which of the following formats should the researcher select?

A. dd MMM yy

B. dd MMM yyyy

C. dd MMMM yyyy

D. dddd MMM yyyy

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which of the following is true when using corners in an association or timeline chart layout?

A. Exhibit A

B. Exhibit B

C. Exhibit C

D. Exhibit D

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

An analyst has the following chart:

Which of the following procedures would the analyst take to bring over ONLY Joan RYAN, her direct entity connections and their interconnections to a new chart?

A. Right-click on Joan RYAN > Copy

B. Right-click on Joan RYAN > Select Connections > Right-click > Copy

C. Right-click on Joan RYAN > Select Connections > Right-click Select Ends > Right-click > Copy

D. Right-click on Joan RYAN > Select Connections > Right-click Select Ends > Right-click > Copy Selection Only

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

An intelligence analyst has printed a chart that is cut off at the edges. Which of the following is the BEST way to fix this problem?

A. Adjust the scale

B. Remove the border

C. Center Chart on Paper

D. Remove header and footer text

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Some telephone calls have been charted, as follows:

An intelligence analyst is tasked with printing out a copy of the chart for management.

To make the chart easier to read, which one layout has been used?

A. Ordered B. Theme Line

C. Proportional

D. Grouped by Time

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Find Path allows a user to:

A. use Google Earth for geospatial analysis.

B. find a specific route between two items on a chart.

C. predict a subject movements based on previous activity.predict a subject? movements based on previous activity.

D. extend the current selection of items on the chart to include entities linked to the selection.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which analysis tool will help discover entities that have been accidentally added more than once to a chart?

A. Find Text

B. Visual Search

C. Find Linked Entities

D. Find Matching Entities

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

A storage administrator is creating a host profile in Unisphere to provide host access to block storage resources using the iSCSI protocol. The host initiators were not automatically discovered and must be manually added. In addition to the SAN host IQN, what other configuration can be performed through the “Create iSCSI Initiator Wizard” window?

A. Enable and disable CHAP settings

B. Create Mutual CHAP secret

C. Create Global CHAP secret

D. Enter CHAP username and secret

Correct Answer: D

A sample from a Broadcomm BIOS is provided in the figure below, illustrating the IQN assignment for the VNX iSCSI target.

References: https://www.emc.com/collateral/hardware/technical-documentation/h8229-vnx-vmware-tb.pdf (page 34)


Question 2:

A storage administrator is configuring a storage pool on a Unity system containing Flash disks and SAS disks. What tier will the system assign to each of the disk types?

A. Flash: Extreme Performance SAS: Performance

B. Flash: Performance SAS: Capacity

C. Flash: Extreme Performance SAS: Capacity

D. Flash: Capacity SAS: Performance

Correct Answer: A

Hybrid pools can have up to 3 tiers (Extreme Performance, Performance, and Capacity).

For the Extreme Performance tier, use only SAS Flashdrives.

For the Capacity tier, use only SAS drives.


Question 3:

Which technology is used by Unity Snapshots?

A. Copy on First Write

B. Inline Deduplication

C. Redirect on Write

D. Block Compression

Correct Answer: C

The technology used for snapshots of both block and file resources in Unity is called redirect on write.


Question 4:

A system administrator is configuring asynchronous remote replication for an existing NAS server and its\’ file systems on a Unity system. What should the administrator create to ensure all data is replicated for the NAS server and the file system?

A. Replication sessions on each file system only

B. Replication sessions for each file system first and then the NAS server

C. A replication session on the NAS server and then manually create replication sessions on each file system

D. A replication session for only the NAS server

Correct Answer: D

Before File Systems or VMware NFS Datastores can be replicated, the NAS Server must be replicated.


Question 5:

Which software bundles are provided with the Unity Starter software package?

A. FAST Cache and Fast VP

B. Thin Provisioning and Quality of Service

C. Controller-Based Encryption and RecoverPoint Basic

D. FAST Cache and Local Point-in-Time Copies

Correct Answer: A

The UnityVSA offers a dynamic deployment model that allows you to start for free and grow as business needs evolve.

UnityVSA include:

FAST Cache leverages the performance of Flash media to improve workloads that are interfacing with spinning disk media.

Fully Automated Storage Tiering for Virtual Pools (FAST VP) ensures your data is distributed effectively across the various media types in a multi-tier pool.

Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15084-emc-unity-introduction-to-the-unity-platform.pdf (page 20)


Question 6:

When configuring asynchronous remote replication, how many internal Unity Snapshots are configured and utilized on the source system by a single replication session?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: B

Internal Snapshot (Replication Snapshot) are Unity Snapshots created by the system which are part of an asynchronous replication session. These Snapshots can be viewed in Unisphere, but user operations are not permitted. Each asynchronous replication session uses two internal snapshots taken on the source and destination storage resources.


Question 7:

A storage administrator is implementing FAST Cache on a Unity 500 storage array and can select from a mix of SSD drives. Which drive types can be configured to meet the administrator\’s requirements?

A. 200 GB and 400 GB

B. 400GB and 1.6 TB

C. 1.6 TB and 3.2 TB

D. 3.2 TB and 800 GB

Correct Answer: A

Unity 500 FAST Cache is only supported by 200 GB and 400 GB SSD hard drives.

Reference: http://www.emc.com/collateral/data-sheet/h14958-unity-hybrid-family-ss.pdf (page 5)


Question 8:

A storage administrator is required to test a new version of an application loaded on a secondary host. The administrator must use existing data contained on a LUN provisioned from Unity to a primary host.

Which solution will meet the requirement and provide space efficiency?

A. Create a snapshot of the LUN Configure LUN access for the secondary host Attach the snapshot to the secondary host

B. Create a snapshot of the LUN Configure snapshot access to the LUN for the secondary host Attach the snapshot to the secondary host

C. Create a Synchronous Replication session for the LUN Configure access to the replica LUN for the secondary host Attach the secondary host

D. Create an Asynchronous Replication on session for the LUN Configure access to the replica LUN for the secondary host Attach the secondary host

Correct Answer: B

Attaching a snapshot is only applicable for block snapshots, and makes the snapshot available for host IO. A host must have Snapshot access or LUN and Snapshot access configured in order to access the snapshot. When a snapshot is attached, Unisphere provides the option to create a copy of the snapshot in case the administrator wants to preserve the current snapshot view for future use.


Question 9:

On which systems is Quality of Service available?

A. Physical Unity systems only

B. UnityVSA systems only

C. Physical Unity and UnityVSA systems

D. All Flash Unity systems only

Correct Answer: C

UnitVSA features Host I/O limits, also known as Quality of service. The EMC [Physical] Unity array comes with a pack of new hardware and software features focusing on the true unification: Support for setting up Host I/O limits, also known as QOS, providing a more predictable performance for the workloads by putting limits on I/O throughputs and bandwidth DPE reduced from a 7U footprint to an innovative 2U footprint 12 GB SAS back-end for the Unity DAEs; EMC VNX/VNXe supported only 6 GB SAS backend Completely redesigned user interface based on HTML5

References: http://www.presidio.com/blog/technical-summary-emc-unification-unity


Question 10:

A system administrator has configured a system using the Initial Configuration wizard. After completing the wizard, the administrator discovers that an incorrect IP address has been assigned to the Unity system. How can the IP address be changed?

A. The IP address cannot be changed once it has been configured

B. Through the Service interface using the ifconfig command

C. In the Unisphere Settings menu

D. The IP address can only be changed using the UEMCLI

Correct Answer: D

The svc_initial_config UEMCLI command sets up initial system configuration. It configures a management IP address when the Connection Utility (CU) is not available on the network. If an address is set, this command can also change the management IPv4 and IPv6 configuration mode. It attempts to configure the system with the given friendly name and/or network parameters.

Note: The Unisphere CLI (UEMCLI) is a tool that provides us with the CLI access to perform the same actions as one would on the Unisphere web interface. References: https://www.emc.com/collateral/TechnicalDocument/docu69328.pdf (page 60)


Question 11:

Which FAST Cache operation can be performed from the Settings window?

A. Disable FAST Cache use on a specific pool

B. Pause FAST Cache use

C. Expand FAST Cache

D. Enable FAST Cache use on a specific pool

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which Unity service task is used to reinstall the root operating system while leaving the user\’s data intact?

A. Restore the Management server

B. Reimage the Storage Processor

C. Restore the Management software

D. Reinitialize the storage system

Correct Answer: B

Re-image a storage processor (SP) to safely fix problems with the system software that could not be resolved by rebooting the SP. Re-imaging analyzes the system software for errors and attempts to correct them instantly. Re-image an SP

from the Service System page.

Your configuration settings and stored files will not be changed.

References: https://community.emc.com/docs/DOC-40315


Question 13:

Which migration tool can be used to move file data a Unity storage array in both NFS and CIFS/SMB protocols?

A. EMC Select Datadobi

B. Unity Async Replication

C. rsync

D. EMCopy

Correct Answer: D

EMcopy will work to copy the data from Solaris host to export CIFS and NFS including the security configuration. References: https://it.toolbox.com/question/copy-data-from-nfs-shared-file-systems-to-nfs-and-cifs-101012


Question 14:

Which step must be completed prior to performing the initial configuration of a UnityVSA system and creating the first storage pool?

A. Create an ESXi host profile

B. License the system for NFS and SMB support

C. Add vDisks to the storage appliance

D. Install license keys for thin provisioning

Correct Answer: C

UNITY VSA STORAGE POOL CREATION

1.

Under the Storage Pool Section go to Pools. Select the to start the “Create Pool Wizard”.

2.

Name the Pool

3.

Assign a Tier to each Virtual Disk attached to the VSA. You have Extreme, Performance and Capacity.

Etc.

References: https://samshouseblog.com/2016/06/08/unity-vsa-storage-pool-creation/


Question 15:

A system administrator has added a new Unity storage array to their environment. The administrator wants to migrate block data from vVNX running in their VMware environment to a UnityVSA. In addition, the administrator needs to migrate the block data from an older CLARiiON storage array to the new Unity storage array.

Which single block migration option will work for both the virtual and hardware storage devices?

A. SAN Copy Push

B. VPLEX

C. Host-Based LVM

D. RecoverPoint

Correct Answer: A

You move Block storage from a CLARiiON CX or VNX Series storage system to an EMC Unity system.

Note: Clariion (styled CLARiiON) is a discontinued [1] SAN disk array manufactured and sold by EMC Corporation, it occupied the entry-level and mid-range of EMC\’s SAN disk array products. In 2011, EMC introduced the EMC VNX Series, designed to replace both the Clariion and Celerra products.

Incorrect Answers:

D: EMC RecoverPoint protects storage arrays LUNs and provides concurrent local and multiple remote data replication copies with continuous data protection for any PiT Recovery. It supports EMC VMAX 10K, 20K, 40K, VNX, VNXe3200, VNX-F, VPLEX, XtremIO and 3rd party arrays via VPLEX.


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Question 1:

Which of the following is not a programming model supported by the CSE microservice development framework?

A. gRPC

B. POJO

C. JAX-RS

D. SpringMVC

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which of the following are the application scenarios of Huawei Cloud APM (Application Performance Management Service)?

A. Analyze transaction status by Apdex value

B. Master application health status through topology graph

C. Track the root cause of the problem through call chain

D. Use templates to deploy apps to the cloud in one click

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 3:

When a ticketing website conducts a big promotion, due to the huge amount of instantaneous visits, the website is easily paralyzed. To cope with traffic spikes, which of the following microservice governance methods can effectively deal with this scenario and prevent system overload and crashes?

A. Current limit is correct

B. Load balancing

C. Fuse

D. Disaster recovery

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Applications have evolved towards the cloud-native (CIoudNative) model, and microservices are the de facto standard for CloudNative.

A. Error

B. Correct

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which of the following operation and maintenance capabilities can the application operation and maintenance of the microservices cloud application platform (serviceStage) provide? () [Multiple choice questions]

A. Call chain analysis

B. NOde Resource Monitoring

C. Alert

D. Log Analysis

E. Elasticity 0 0%

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 6:

Blockchain is a versatile technology that can replace databases and the Internet. Huawei Blockchain Service (BCS) is a high-performance, high-availability and high-security blockchain technology platform service for enterprises and developers. Chain traceability and other scenarios.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

In POJO mode, what information do consumers need to formulate when calling service providers? () [Multiple choice questions]

Option Subtotal Proportion

A. instanceId

B. schemaId

C. operationId

D. microserviceName

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

Huawei Cloud PaaS adheres to the company\’s proposition in the field of open source “originating from open source, higher than open source, giving back to open source”, and continuously innovating based on cloud-native technologies to help prosper the ecosystem. The following are PaaS contributions in the open source field?

A. Containers: CNCF Startup Member, Platinum Member, Kubernetes

B. The community contributes to the domestic first and the third global microservices field: self-developed microservice framework

C. ServiceComb, the industry\’s first Apache microservices top project Blockchain: Joined the Hyperledger community in 2016, Fabric and STL Maintainer, the only one in Asia

D. Kubernetes Ecology: Aiming at the industry problems of gene sequencing and edge scenarios, open source container-based one-stop gene sequencing computing framework KubeGene and Kubernetes architecture platform management framework KubeEdge

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 9:

What are the capabilities provided by Huawei CSE Microservices\’ full life cycle management () [multiple choice questions]

A. Service creation – local engineering, cloud engineering

B. CCD – Application Development Pipeline

C. Service operation and maintenance – microservice governance

D. Service monitoring – dashboard, docking APM

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 10:

UML class diagram deployment indicates the dynamic relationship between classes () [Single-choice question]

Option Subtotal Proportion

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

When using Huawei Cloud Distributed Messaging DMS service, what information do I need to obtain to complete client access after Kafka queue creation is complete? (Multiple choices)

A. Client certificate

B. AS / SK

C. Access point information

D. Consumer Information

Correct Answer: AB


Question 12:

Which of the following are middleware products in the industry? (Multiple choices)

A. Ignite B. Apache Tomcat

B. oracle RebLogic D. Kafka

C. Redis

D. IBM Message Queue

Correct Answer: BC


Question 13:

Public cloud charges, private clouds do not charge

A. Error

B. Correct

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which of the following are the functions that can be achieved after building a distributed cloud application using cloud middleware? () [Multiple choice questions]

A. Dynamic and static separation: The traffic of dynamic pages is separated from the traffic of static pages

B. Accurately predict system performance and luxury

C. System decoupling

D. Database sub-database sub-table

E. Open, compatible, and scalable

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 15:

The microservice engine provides gray-scale publishing between microservices, and supports

(Such as Header).

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

A customer is a cloud provider who needs a new storage array. They want a solution that has built-in multi-tenancy features. Why should you propose HPE 3PAR StoreServ to the customer?

A. It divides controller nodes into groups for multiple tenants.

B. It includes the virtual domains feature as part of all-inclusive licensing.

C. It divides drives into separate pools for multiple tenants.

D. It includes the NPARs feature for physical separation of the array into tenant areas.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/4aa3-3516enw.pdf


Question 2:

A customer is looking for a new platform to support their AI research projects. Which technology should you recommend?

A. Peer Persistence

B. Multi-core GPUs

C. Availability clustering

D. Persistent memory

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/solutions/infosight.html


Question 3:

A customer is looking to virtualize desktops and application access to provide better business continuance and disaster recovery. They also need simplified deployment and the ability to scale out in the feature. Which HPE platform should you recommend?

A. Edgeline

B. ProLiant DL

C. Superdome Flex

D. SimpliVity

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/a00019351enw.pdf


Question 4:

What must be taken into account when using the HPE FlexFabric 5945 4-slot Switch as a ToR switch in a solution?

A. adding in a Network Analytics Engine license

B. specifying a fan tray with the appropriate direction of airflow

C. adding in an Intelligent Resilient Framework license

D. selecting power supplies with adequate reserve PoE capacity

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/uk/en/product-catalog/networking/networking-switches/pip.hpe-flexfabric-5945-switch-series.1010931108.html


Question 5:

A customer wants to implement a container platform across their enterprise data center. They need to automate hardware and software configurations to quickly provision and deploy at scale. Which authentication solution should you recommend?

A. Red Hat Ansible Tower

B. OpenStack on OpenStack

C. Chef

D. DevStack

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A customer is purchasing a full rack of DL380 Gen10 servers. They are under a severe time constraint and would like the servers to be ready to receive applications upon power up. What should be recommended to satisfy this requirement?

A. Use HPE Proactive Care services.

B. Use HP Pointnext service patching and OS installation services.

C. Include a Customer Intent Document with the order, requesting OS installation services.

D. Nothing additional: all servers arrive from the factory ready for application deployment.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A customer contacts you for assistance with an expansion of their current HPE Synergy environment. The existing environment contains:

1.

one Synergy 12000 frame

2.

two Composers

3.

eight SY480 Compute Modules – 1 CPU – 384GB RAM – 3820C 10/20GbE CNA

4.

one D3940 Storage Module

The new requirement is 16Gb FC connectivity to a newly-deployed 3PAR storage array.

Which components should you include? (Choose two.)

A. Synergy 3830C Host Bus Adapter

B. two QSFP AOC/DAC cables for ICM clustering

C. a second CPU per Compute Module

D. HPE Synergy FC License Upgrade per Composer pair

E. an additional Virtual Connect SE 40Gb F8

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=c05061206


Question 8:

A customer running multiple HPE Synergy frames wants to change a parameter in the BIOS of all their VMware servers, based on the recommendations of their VMware team. Where is the most efficient location to make this change?

A. iLO Federation

B. Server Profile Template

C. Logical Enclosure

D. ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU)

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

A customer asks you about the features of the HPE SimpliVity, such as performance, availability, efficiency, and protection. Which statement is correct about an HPE SimpliVity solution that enables these features?

A. The OmniStack Accelerator Card (OAC) contains a FPGA programmed with HPE SimpliVity deduplication, compression, and optimization algorithms.

B. The OmniStack Accelerator Card (OAC) connects directly to the iSCSI VIP address enabled by the OVC.

C. The OmniStack Accelerator Card (OAC) has direct hardware access to the two PCIe cards through VM direct path IO.

D. The OmniStack Virtual Controller(OVC) creates an iSCSI datastore where the hypervisor stores the workload VMs.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/a00009003enw.pdf (6)


Question 10:

In preparation for a customer presentation, you need to provide meaningful estimates of cooling requirements for HPE ProLiant, HPE Apollo, and HPE Synergy servers. What should you use?

A. HPE Synergy Planning Tool

B. HPE Proposal Web

C. HPE Server Memory Configurator

D. HPE Power Advisor

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA6-2925ENW.pdf


Question 11:

A customer requires front panel access for their Gen10 servers. What is required to meet this need?

A. a USB 2.0 Ethernet adapter

B. an installed iLo Advance license

C. Secure Boot enabled

D. Two-factor authentication enabled

Correct Answer: A

HPE iLO Service port – How to use it?


Question 12:

A customer is looking for a switch virtualization feature that can help them simplify the management of their HPE FlexFabric switches. Which technology should you recommend?

A. VSF

B. MSTP

C. VXLAN

D. IRF

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=emr_na-c04214037anddocLocale=en_US (6)


Question 13:

A customer is asking for the latest version of the HPE Nimble Storage Integration Guide. Where can the customer download the guide?

A. HPE SPOCK

B. HPE Product Bulletin

C. HPE InfoSight

D. HPE Information Library

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/Application-Integration/Announcing-the-release-of-HPE-Nimble-Storage-PowerShell-Toolkit/td-p/7017899#.XgCDWmbVLiw


Question 14:

A customer is interested in a Synergy solution. They need 100 compute modules and expect the workload to double in two years. They ask for the minimum number of management ports they will need to connect Synergy frames into their management network. How should you reply?

A. FLMs from all frames connect into a management ring, and the management ring connects into their management network with two uplinks.

B. FLMs from all frames connect to two external switches, and these two switches connect into their management network.

C. Synergy solution only allows 15 frames to be interconnected, so growth in customer\’s workload is not supported.

D. The RJ-45 ports on the front of each frame are connected to an external switch, which is connected into their management network.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You are designing a network topology for a customer. The customer is looking for a large-scale Layer 2 fabric, with redundant links and load balancing, while avoiding traditional STP, RSTP, and MSTP protocols. Which switch will support these features with industry standard technology?

A. HPE FlexFabric 5980

B. HPE FlexFabric 12902E

C. Aruba 8325

D. HPE FlexFabric 5710

Correct Answer: B

https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/c04111378.pdf


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Question 1:

Which step can be taken to ensure that only FortiAP devices receive IP addresses from a DHCP server on FortiGate?

A. Change the interface addressing mode to FortiAP devices.

B. Create a reservation list in the DHCP server settings.

C. Configure a VCI string value of FortiAP in the DHCP server settings.

D. Use DHCP option 138 to assign IPs to FortiAP devices.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

In the WTP profile configuration shown in the exhibit, the AP profile is assigned to two FAP-320 APs that are installed in an open plan office.

1.

The first AP has 32 clients associated to the 5GHz radios and 22 clients associated to the 2.4GHz

radio.

2.

The second AP has 12 clients associated to the 5GHz radios and 20 clients associated to the 2.4GHz radio.

A dual band-capable client enters the office near the first AP and the first AP measures the new client at −33 dBm signal strength. The second AP measures the new client at −43 dBm signal strength.

In the new client attempts to connect to the corporate wireless network, to which AP radio will the client be associated?

A. The second AP 5GHz interface.

B. The first AP 2.4GHz interface.

C. The first AP 5GHz interface.

D. The second AP 2.4GHz interface.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which two EAP methods can use MSCHAPV2 for client authentication? (Choose two.)

A. PEAP

B. EAP-TTLS

C. EAP-TLS

D. EAP-GTC

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://help.fortinet.com/fauth/3-3/Content/FortiAuthenticator 3_3 Admin% 20Guide/500/501_EAP.htm


Question 4:

Which two statements about the use of digital certificates are true? (Choose two.)

A. An intermediate CA can sign server certificates.

B. An intermediate CA can sign another intermediate CA certificate.

C. The end entity\’s certificate can only be created by an intermediate CA.

D. An intermediate CA can validate the end entity certificate signed by another intermediate CA.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 5:

A wireless network in a school provides guest access using a captive portal to allow unregistered users to self-register and access the network. The administrator is requested to update the existing configuration to provide captive portal authentication through a secure connection (HTTPS) to protect and encrypt guest user credentials after they receive the login information when registered for the first time.

Which two changes must the administrator make to enforce HTTPS authentication? (Choose two.)

A. Provide instructions to users to use HTTPS to access the network.

B. Create a new SSID with the HTTPS captive portal URL.

C. Enable Redirect HTTP Challenge to a Secure Channel (HTTPS) in the user authentication settings

D. Update the captive portal URL to use HTTPS on FortiGate and FortiAuthenticator

Correct Answer: BD


Question 6:

An administrator is deploying APs that are connecting over an IPsec network. All APs have been configured to connect to FortiGate manually. FortiGate can discover the APs and authorize them. However, FortiGate is unable to establish CAPWAP tunnels to manage the APs.

Which configuration setting can the administrator perform to resolve the problem?

A. Decrease the CAPWAP tunnel MTU size for APs to prevent fragmentation.

B. Enable CAPWAP administrative access on the IPsec interface.

C. Upgrade the FortiAP firmware image to ensure compatibility with the FortiOS version.

D. Assign a custom AP profile for the remote APs with the set mpls-connectionoption enabled.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

A host machine connected to port2 on FortiSwitch cannot connect to the network. All ports on FortiSwitch are assigned a security policy to enforce 802.1X port authentication. While troubleshooting the issue, the administrator runs the debug command and obtains the output shown in the exhibit.

Which two scenarios are the likely cause of this issue? (Choose two.)

A. The host machine is not configured for 802.1X port authentication.

B. The host machine does not support 802. 1X authentication.

C. The host machine is quarantined due to a security incident.

D. The host machine is configured with wrong VLAN ID.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD46428


Question 8:

What action does FortiSwitch take when it receives a loop guard data packet (LGDP) that was sent by itself?

A. The receiving port is shut down.

B. The sending port is shut down

C. The receiving port is moved to the STP blocking state.

D. The sending port is moved to the STP blocking state

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.scribd.com/document/468940309/Secure-Access-6-0-Study-Guide-Online-pdf


Question 9:

Default VLANs are created on FortiGate when the FortiLink interface is created. By default, which VLAN is set as Allowed VLANs on all FortiSwitch ports?

A. Sniffer VLAN

B. Camera VLAN

C. Quarantine VLAN

D. Voice VLAN

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

What does DHCP snooping MAC verification do?

A. Drops DHCP release packets on untrusted ports

B. Drops DHCP packets with no relay agent information (option 82) on untrusted ports

C. Drops DHCP offer packets on untrusted ports

D. Drops DHCP packets on untrusted ports when the client hardware address does not match the source MAC address

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiswitch/6.4.2/administration-guide/335964/dhcpsnooping (note)


Question 11:

Which statement correctly describes the quest portal behavior on FortiAuthenticator?

A. Sponsored accounts cannot authenticate using guest portals.

B. FortiAuthenticator uses POST parameters and a RADIUS client configuration to map the request to a guest portal for authentication.

C. All guest accounts must be activated using SMS or email activation codes.

D. All self-registered and sponsored accounts are listed on the local Users GUI page on FortiAuthenticator.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Examine the sections of the configuration shown in the following output:

What action will the FortiGate take when using OCSP certificate validation?

A. FortiGate will reject the certificate if the OCSP server replies that the certificate is unknown.

B. FortiGate will use the OCSP server 10.0.1.150 even when the OCSP URL field in the user certificate

contains a different OCSP server IP address.

C. FortiGate will use the OCSP server 10.0.1.150 even when there is a different OCSP IP address in the ocsp-override-serveroption under config user peer.

D. FortiGate will invalidate the certificate if the OSCP server is unavailable.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

Examine the configuration of the FortiSwitch security policy profile.

If the security profile shown in the exhibit is assigned on the FortiSwitch port for 802.1X.port authentication, which statement is correct?

A. Host machines that do support 802.1X authentication, but have failed authentication, will be assigned the guest VLAN.

B. All unauthenticated users will be assigned the auth-fail VLAN.

C. Authenticated users that are part of the wired-users group will be assigned the guest VLAN.

D. Host machines that do not support 802.1X authentication will be assigned the guest VLAN.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Examine the following RADIUS configuration:

An administrator has configured a RADIUS server on FortiGate that points to FortiAuthenticator. FortiAuthenticator is acting as an authentication proxy and is configured to relay all authentication requests to a remote Windows AD server using LDAP.

While testing the configuration, the administrator notices that the diagnose test authservercommand works with PAP, however, authentication requests fail when using MSCHAPv2.

Which two changes should the administrator make to get MSCHAPv2 to work? (Choose two.)

A. Force FortiGate to use the PAP authentication method in the RADIUS server configuration.

B. Change the remote authentication server from LDAP to RADIUS on FortiAuthenticator.

C. Use MSCHAP instead of using MSCHAPv2

D. Enable Windows Active Directory Domain Authentication on FortiAuthenticator to add FortiAuthenticator to the Windows domain.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiauthenticator/6.0.0/administration-guide/641286/ remote-authentication-servers


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibits.

Examine the VAP configuration and the WiFi zones table shown in the exhibits.

Which two statements describe FortiGate behavior regarding assignment of VLANs to wireless clients? (Choose two.)

A. FortiGate will load balance clients using VLAN 101 and VLAN 102 and assign them an IP address from the 10.0.3.0/24 subnet.

B. Clients connecting to APs in the Floor 1 group will not be able to receive an IP address.

C. All clients connecting to the Corp SSID will receive an IP address from the 10.0.3.1/24 subnet.

D. Clients connecting to APs in the Office group will be assigned an IP address from the 10.0.20.1/24 subnet.

Correct Answer: BD


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Question 1:

An internal host initiates a session to the Google.com website and is set for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway. The initiating traffic is an example of __________.

A. client side NAT

B. source NAT

C. destination NAT

D. None of these

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

A host on the Internet initiates traffic to the Static NAT IP of your Web server behind the Security Gateway. With the default settings in place for NAT, the initiating packet will translate the _________.

A. destination on server side

B. source on server side

C. source on client side

D. destination on client side

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Looking at the SYN packets in the Wireshark output, select the statement that is true about NAT.

A. This is an example of Hide NAT.

B. There is not enough information provided in the Wireshark capture to determine the NAT settings.

C. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side unchecked in Global Properties.

D. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side checked in Global Properties.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When Network Address Translation is used:

A. It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway\’s routing table.

B. It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway\’s routing table.

C. The Security Gateway\’s ARP file must be modified.

D. VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Your internal network is configured to be 10.1.1.0/24. This network is behind your perimeter R80 Gateway, which connects to your ISP provider. How do you configure the Gateway to allow this network to go out to the Internet?

A. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the external IP address of your perimeter Gateway.

B. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the internal interface of your perimeter Gateway.

C. Use automatic Static NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24.

D. Do nothing, as long as 10.1.1.0 network has the correct default Gateway.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

You are a Security Administrator who has installed Security Gateway R80 on your network. You need to allow a specific IP address range for a partner site to access your intranet Web server. To limit the partner\’s access for HTTP and FTP

only, you did the following:

1) Created manual Static NAT rules for the Web server.

2) Cleared the following settings in the Global Properties > Network Address Translation screen:

-Allow bi-directional NAT

Translate destination on client side Do the above settings limit the partner\’s access?

A.

Yes. This will ensure that traffic only matches the specific rule configured for this traffic, and that the Gateway translates the traffic after accepting the packet.

B.

No. The first setting is not applicable. The second setting will reduce performance.

C.

Yes. Both of these settings are only applicable to automatic NAT rules.

D.

No. The first setting is only applicable to automatic NAT rules. The second setting will force translation by the kernel on the interface nearest to the client.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

You enable Automatic Static NAT on an internal host node object with a private IP address of 10.10.10.5, which is NATed into 216.216.216.5. (You use the default settings in Global Properties / NAT.) When you run fw monitor on the R80 Security Gateway and then start a new HTTP connection from host 10.10.10.5 to browse the Internet, at what point in the monitor output will you observe the HTTP SYN-ACK packet translated from 216.216.216.5 back into 10.10.10.5?

A. o=outbound kernel, before the virtual machine

B. I=inbound kernel, after the virtual machine

C. O=outbound kernel, after the virtual machine

D. i=inbound kernel, before the virtual machine

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

You just installed a new Web server in the DMZ that must be reachable from the Internet. You create a manual Static NAT rule as follows:

Source: Any || Destination: web_public_IP || Service: Any || Translated Source: original || Translated Destination: web_private_IP || Service: Original “web_public_IP” is the node object that represents the new Web server\’s public IP address.

“web_private_IP” is the node object that represents the new Web site\’s private IP address. You enable all settings from Global Properties > NAT. When you try to browse the Web server from the Internet you see the error “page cannot be

displayed”. Which of the following is NOT a possible reason?

A. There is no Security Policy defined that allows HTTP traffic to the protected Web server.

B. There is no ARP table entry for the protected Web server\’s public IP address.

C. There is no route defined on the Security Gateway for the public IP address to the Web server\’s private IP address.

D. There is no NAT rule translating the source IP address of packets coming from the protected Web server.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

You have created a Rule Base for firewall, websydney. Now you are going to create a new policy package with security and address translation rules for a second Gateway.

What is TRUE about the new package\’s NAT rules?

A. Rules 1, 2, 3 will appear in the new package.

B. Only rule 1 will appear in the new package.

C. NAT rules will be empty in the new package.

D. Rules 4 and 5 will appear in the new package.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Your customer, Mr. Smith needs access to other networks and should be able to use all services. Session authentication is not suitable. You select Client Authentication with HTTP. The standard authentication port for client HTTP authentication (Port 900) is already in use. You want to use Port 9001 but are having connectivity problems. Why are you having problems?

A. The configuration file $FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf is incorrect.

B. The Security Policy is not correct.

C. You can\’t use any port other than the standard port 900 for Client Authentication via HTTP.

D. The service FW_clntauth_http configuration is incorrect.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

In the Rule Base displayed, user authentication in Rule 4 is configured as fully automatic. Eric is a member of the LDAP group, MSD_Group.

What happens when Eric tries to connect to a server on the Internet?

A. None of these things will happen.

B. Eric will be authenticated and get access to the requested server.

C. Eric will be blocked because LDAP is not allowed in the Rule Base.

D. Eric will be dropped by the Stealth Rule.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

As a Security Administrator, you must refresh the Client Authentication authorization time-out every time a new user connection is authorized. How do you do this? Enable the Refreshable Timeout setting:

A. in the user object\’s Authentication screen.

B. in the Gateway object\’s Authentication screen.

C. in the Limit tab of the Client Authentication Action Properties screen.

D. in the Global Properties Authentication screen.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

The technical-support department has a requirement to access an intranet server. When configuring a User Authentication rule to achieve this, which of the following should you remember?

A. You can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, SMTP, and rlogin services.

B. The Security Gateway first checks if there is any rule that does not require authentication for this type of connection before invoking the Authentication Security Server.

C. Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until logging out.

D. You can limit the authentication attempts in the User Properties\’ Authentication tab.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

You cannot use SmartDashboard\’s User Directory features to connect to the LDAP server. What should you investigate?

1) Verify you have read-only permissions as administrator for the operating system.

2) Verify there are no restrictions blocking SmartDashboard\’s User Manager from connecting to the LDAP server.

3) Check that the login Distinguished Name configured has root permission (or at least write permission Administrative access) in the LDAP Server\’s access control configuration.

A. 1, 2, and 3

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 2

D. 1 and 3

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which Security Gateway R80 configuration setting forces the Client Authentication authorization time-out to refresh, each time a new user is authenticated? The:

A. Time properties, adjusted on the user objects for each user, in the Client Authentication rule Source.

B. IPS > Application Intelligence > Client Authentication > Refresh User Timeout option enabled.

C. Refreshable Timeout setting, in Client Authentication Action Properties > Limits.

D. Global Properties > Authentication parameters, adjusted to allow for Regular Client Refreshment.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

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A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which funtion can be used to insert an empty entry? Choose the correct answer.

A. copyvalue()

B. exists()

C. RemoveContexts()

D. SplitByValueQ

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which runtime constant is associated with the sender interface name? Choose the correct answer.

A. $SenderService

B. $Interface

C. SInterface Namespace

D. $Receiver Name

Correct Answer: AC


Question 4:

An inbound service interface corresponds to a client or consumer proxy. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

What do business rules define? Choose the correct answer.

A. A set application tasks and sequencing.

B. A set of restrictions placed on te process model.

C. A set of conditions with associated actions.

D. A set of standard practices and policies.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

The RFC adapter is located on the Java Enterprise Edition (JEE) Engine Determine whether this statement is true or false.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

The Java component SLD data supplier is deployed and started for the SAP NetWeaver AS Java server. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

If you modify a mapping template after it has been references in a message mapping, the change is automatically transferred to the message mapping. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which of the following logs contains information about BPM processes and tasks? Choose the correct answer.

A. Business log

B. Connection log

C. J2EE Engine log

D. Process log

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Messages created in the message split contain the original message attachments. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

The … acts as a central point of information for all interfaces. Choose the correct answer.

A. Software component

B. Enterprise Services Repository (ESR)

C. Imported object

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What do Business Rules represent?

Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. They represent application business rules of an organization.

B. They represent the constraints on behavior of the business.

C. They represent a set of standard business practices.

D. They represent a static component of any business.

E. They represent the guidelines and core business logic.

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 13:

Which of the following XSLT tags allow you to import additional XSLT files? Choose the correct answers.

A.

B.

C.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

What is a referenced subprocess used for? Choose the correct answer.

A. To reference another dependent process by the parent process

B. To reference another independent process by the parent process

C. To reference another dependent process by the child process

D. To reference another independent process by the child process

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What is data mapping used for? Choose the correct answer.

A. Transforming process context to a source context

B. Transforming target context to a source context

C. Transforming business context to a target context

D. Transforming source context to a target context

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Which setup profile option allows you to send a report directly to a browser window?

A. Viewer: Text

B. Concurrent: Report Copies

C. Flexfields: Open Key Window

D. Concurrent Report: Access Level

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

There are several types of RFQ, Including Catalog RFQ, Standard RFQ, and Bid RFQ.

There are only two classes of RFQ. Identify the two valid classes and their appropriate purposes. (Choose two.)

A. Bid Class, which supports Shipments

B. Standard Class, which supports Items

C. Planned Class, which supports Catalogs

D. Catalog Class, which supports Price Breaks

E. Cost Class, which supports Bid Price Breaks

F. Category Class, which supports Supplier Catalogs

G. Contract Class, which supports Total Dollars Agreed to

Correct Answer: AD


Question 3:

Company X is identifying the major aspects of its inventory organization structure and definitions. Which two actions or statements would be correct? (Choose two.)

A. An Inventory location can be an Office Site only If it Is also a registered office.

B. It can consider manufacturing facilities, warehouses, distribution centers, and branch offices, as well as other entities.

C. It does not need a minimum of two inventory organizations in a master/child relationship, but it is a best practice to do so.

D. The financial impact of inventory parameters is limited to Purchase Price Variance and Intransit Account for Interorganization shipments and Transfer Credits for the sending organization.

E. You can control inventory organizations across different operating units from one responsibility but you cannot have ft default to one operating unit. The last used operating unit used before you tog off would default when you log in the next time.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

Select the best business practice for a supplier that is being newly added to the Approved Supplier List.

A. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing, Schedule Confirmation and Manufacturer Link

B. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing and Schedule Confirmation but not Manufacturer Link

C. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing and Manufacturer Link but not Schedule Confirmation

D. Allow PO Approval, Schedule Confirmation and Manufacturer Link but not Sourcing

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Identify the correct sequence of steps in the Procure to Pay period dose process.

A. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period.

B. Prepare for period close. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period. > Post journal entries in GL

C. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in PO. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile PO activity for the period. > Close the AP period.

D. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Post journal entries in GL > Close the PO period.

E. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Create accounting. > Post journal entries in GL. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A multinational company is setting up the sourcing rules and approved supplier list (ASL) to source inventory items across different organizations. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. You do not need to create a local ASL if you create a Global ASL

B. Inventory organizations used in the sourcing rules must be set up in the Shipping Networks.

C. You need to match the supplier between a sourcing rule and an ASL, but not the supplier site.

D. The country of origin must be entered in the ASL, or it would not be available on the purchasing document.

E. A commodity can be assigned to a supplier at both the global level and at the local level, and the local level assignment takes precedence.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 7:

Which control option prevents changes or additions to the purchase order or release, but maintains the ability to receive and match invoices?

A. Hold

B. Firm

C. Close

D. Freeze

E. Finally Close

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

The buyer decides to automatically update and create sourcing rules, as part of the blanket purchase agreement approval process. However, on clicking the Approve button, the buyer does not see any option to update and create blanket

purchase sourcing rules.

Which profile option has the buyer failed to set up?

A. PO: Automatic Document Sourcing

B. MRP: Default Sourcing Assignment Set

C. PO: Allow Auto-generate Sourcing Rules

D. PO: Allow Autocreation of Oracle Sourcing Documents

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Your company often orders Items that are sourced from multiple suppliers. At any given time, the supplier varies depending on the supplier\’s current production capability and price offering. The price varies throughout the year. For a particular

item, there is no single supplier that receives the majority of the orders.

What is the best way to set up this item?

A. Create blanket purchase agreements, a sourcing rule identifying all the possible suppliers, and approved supplier list entries.

B. Create contract purchase agreements, a sourcing rule identifying all the possible suppliers, and approved supplier list entries.

C. Do not create blanket or contract purchase agreements or sourcing rules. Manually AutoCreate requisitions onto standard purchase orders.

D. Create a blanket purchase agreement for only one supplier, a sourcing rule for just that supplier, and an approved supplier list entry for that supplier.

E. Create a contract purchase agreement for only one supplier, a sourcing rule for just that supplier, and an approved supplier list entry for that supplier.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which four are supported by the Receiving Open Interface (ROI)? (Choose four.)

A. Unordered receipt

B. Dynamic locators

C. Deliver transactions

D. Movement statistics

E. Correct transactions

F. Receive transactions

G. Transfer transactions

Correct Answer: CEFG


Question 11:

Select three true statements regarding the Workflow Document Creation prerequisite (PO Create Documents workflow). (Choose three.)

A. Catalog quote must not be expired, but may be inactive.

B. Supplier and supplier site are required on the requisition related to a contract purchase order.

C. If a system Item is not associated with the requisition line, a supplier item number is required.

D. Sourcing rules are required If the requisition originates in Oracle Purchasing or {Procurement.

E. No source document is required for the PO Create Documents workflow to create a release or purchase order.

F. The only time an approved supplier list is required is if your source document is a blanket purchase agreement and you are using a system item.

Correct Answer: BCF


Question 12:

Requisition Import groups all requisitions with the same group code under the same requisition header. If no group code is specified, requisition Import groups requisitions according to five types of groups that can be optionally passed to the Requisition Import process.

Identify them. (Choose five.)

A. Group by Item.

B. Group by price.

C. Group by buyer.

D. Group by UOM.

E. Group by location.

F. Group by supplier.

G. Group by description.

H. Group all requisition lines under one requisition header

Correct Answer: ACEFH


Question 13:

Which two statements are true regarding approval workflows In Purchasing? (Choose two.)

A. You can limit approval levels in an Approval Group by Item Category.

B. Approval routing can cut across legal entities within a business group.

C. A Purchase Requisition and a Standard Purchase Order cannot have different approval levels.

D. The Hierarchy Forward Method routes the document to the first approver in the hierarchy who has the required approval limits for that document.

E. During Position Hierarchy setup, a constraint that must be considered is that the Subordinate must not be the manager of the Position Holder in their regular job roles.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 14:

There are four tabbed regions in the Supplier Item Catalog window (Negotiated Sources, Prior Purchases, Sourcing Rules, and Requisition Templates), but function security can be used to determine whether a user will be able to see all of

them.

In release R12, where is the requisition setup option that determines which of the tabbed regions is the default?

A. in the Profile Options setup

B. in the Lookup Codes setup

C. in the Document Types setup

D. in the Purchasing Options setup

E. in the Expense Account Rules setup

F. in the Requisition Preferences setup

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Price Tolerance (%) on the Purchasing Options Control section refers to the percentage by which ___________.

A. the purchase order line price cannot exceed a price quote

B. the invoice price cannot exceed the purchase order line price

C. the purchase order line price cannot exceed the blanket amount

D. the supplier catalog price cannot exceed purchase order line price

E. the purchase order line price cannot exceed the requisition line price

Correct Answer: E


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Question 1:

A Citrix Engineer needs to set up access to an internal application for external partners.

Which two entities must the engineer configure on the Citrix ADC to support this? (Choose two.)

A. SAML Policy

B. SAMLldP Profile

C. SAMLldP Policy

D. SAML Action

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.citrix.com/blogs/2015/04/09/how-to-use-saml-authentication-with- storefront-2-6/


Question 2:

Which action ensures that content is retrieved from the server of origin?

A. CACHE

B. MAY_CACHE

C. NOCACHE

D. MAY_NOCACHE

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-adc/current-release/optimization/integrated- caching/ configure- cookies-headers-and-polling.html


Question 3:

Scenario: During application troubleshooting, a Citrix Engineer notices that response traffic received from a protected web application is NOT matching what the web server is sending out. The auditor is concerned that Man-In-The-Middle attack is in progress.

Which action is the Citrix Web App Firewall performing that would trigger this false positive?

A. Removing the Last-Modified header

B. Inserting a hidden form field

C. Removing the Accept-Encoding header

D. Modifying and adding cookies in the response

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which license must be present on the Citrix ADC for the Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) Service to generate HDX Insight reports that present one year\’s worth of data?

A. Advanced

B. Premium Plus

C. Premium

D. Standard

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) feature can a Citrix Engineer use to narrow a list of Citrix ADC devices based on pre-defined criteria?

A. AutoScale Groups

B. Instance Groups

C. Configuration Template

D. Tags

E. Agent

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which protection can a Citrix Engineer implement to prevent a hacker from extracting a customer list from the company website?

A. Cross-Site Request Forgeries (CSRF)

B. Form Field Consistency

C. HTML Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

D. HTML SQL Injection

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

A Citrix Engineer is notified that no traffic is reaching the protected web application. While investigating, the

engineer notices that the Citrix Web App Firewall policy has 516,72 hits.

What should the engineer check next?

A. The security checks in the assigned profile

B. The HTML Error Object

C. The policy expression

D. The security checks in the global default profile

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer configures Citrix Web App Firewall to protect an application. Users report that they are NOT able to log on. The engineer enables a Start URL relaxation for the path //login.aspx.

What is the effect of the Start URL relaxation on the application?

A. Access to the path /login.aspx is unblocked.

B. Access to the path /login.aspx is blocked.

C. External users are blocked from the path /login.aspx. Internal users are permitted to the path / login.aspx.

D. Non-administrative users are blocked from the path /login.aspx Administrative users are permitted to the path /login.aspx.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer wants to protect a web application using Citrix Web App Firewall. The engineer enables the Learn action for the Start URL, HTML, Cross-Site Scripting, and HTML SQL Injection protections. The engineer assigns this profile to a policy, which is then bound to the virtual server.

Which two items can the engineer check to determine that the Learn action is NOT capturing any rules? (Choose two.)

A. The HTML Error Object is configured for the profile.

B. Enough space is left on the /flash file system.

C. The aslearn process is running on the Citrix ADC appliance.

D. The Learn database is less than 20 MB.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 10:

A Citrix Engineer wants to delegate management of Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to a junior team member.

Which assigned role will limit the team member to view all application-related data?

A. readonly

B. appReadonly

C. admin

D. appAdmin

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-application-delivery-management- service/setting-up/ configuring- role-based-access-control.html


Question 11:

Which Front End Optimization technique causes the Citrix ADC to resize images before sending them to the client?

A. Minify

B. Shrink to Attributes

C. Compression

D. Inlining

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-adc/current-release/optimization/front-end- optimization.html


Question 12:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer implements Application-level Quality of Experience (AppQoE) to protect a web application. Shortly after that, users call to complain that nearly every request is being met with a Captcha.

What can the engineer do to improve the user experience?

A. Disable the Captcha.

B. Increase the DOS Attack Threshold.

C. Increase the Policy Queue Depth.

D. Increase the Session Life.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

What is required for connecting a data center to the Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) Service?

A. Instance

B. Configuration Job

C. Agent

D. Syslog

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-application-delivery-management- service/citrix-applicationdelivery-management-service.html


Question 14:

Which feature of Learning should a Citrix Engineer configure to direct Citrix Web App Firewall to learn from specific sessions?

A. Advanced policy expression filter

B. Default policy expression filter

C. Trusted Learning Clients list

D. Manage Content Types for Safe Commerce

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-adc/current-release/application- firewall/profiles/learning.html


Question 15:

Which Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) Analytics page allows an engineer to monitor the metrics of end-point analysis and authentication failures?

A. Gateway Insight

B. HDX Insight

C. Web Insight

D. Security Insight

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

You have deployed a web application targeting a global audience across multiple Oracle Cloud

Infrastructure (OCI) regions.

You decide to use Traffic Management Geo-Location based Steering Policy to serve web requests to

users from the region closets to the user. Within each region you have deployed a public load balancer

with 4 servers in a backend set. During a DR test disable all web servers in one of the regions however,

traffic Management does not automatically direct all users to the other region.

Which two are possible causes?

A. You did not setup a Route Table associated with load Balancer\’s subnet

B. You did not setup an HTTP Health Check associated with Load Balancer public IP in the disabled region.

C. Rather than using Geo-Location based Steering Policy, you should use Failover Policy Type to serve traffic.

D. One of the two working web servers In the other region did not pass Its HTTP health check

E. You did not correctly setup the Load Balancer HTTP health check policy associated with backend set

Correct Answer: BE

Managing Traffic Management GEOLOCATION Steering Policies Geolocation steering policies distribute DNS traffic to different endpoints based on the location of the end user. Customers can define geographic regions composed of originating continent, countries or states/provinces (North America) and define a separate endpoint or set of endpoints for each region. The Health Checks service allows you to monitor the health of IP addresses and hostnames, as measured from geographic vantage points of your choosing, using HTTP and ping probes. After configuring a health check, you can view the monitor\’s results. The results include the location from which the host was monitored, the availability of the endpoint, and the date and time the test was performed. Also you can Combine Managing Traffic Management GEOLOCATION Steering Policies with Oracle Health Checks to fail over from one region to another The Load Balancing service provides health status indicators that use your health check policies to report on the general health of your load balancers and their components. if you misconfigure the health check Protocol between the Load balancer and backend set that can lead to not get an accurate response as example below If you run a TCP-level health check against an HTTP service, you might not get an accurate response. The TCP handshake can succeed and indicate that the service is up even when the HTTP service is ly configured or having other issues. Although the health check appears good customers might experience transaction failures.


Question 2:

Your team is conducting a root analysis (RCA) following a recent, unplanned outage. One of the block volumes attached to your production WebLogic server was deleted and you have tasked with identifying the source of the action. You search the Audit logs and find several Delete actions that occurred in the previous 24 hours. Given the sample of this event.

Which item from the event log helps you identify the individual or service that initiated the DeleteVolume API call?

A. requestAgent

B. eventource

C. principalld

D. requestOrigin

E. eventId

Correct Answer: C

The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Audit service automatically records calls to all supported Oracle Cloud

Infrastructure public application programming interface (API) endpoints as log events.

Currently, all services support logging by Audit.

Every audit log event includes two main parts:

Envelopes that act as a container for all event messages Payloads that contain data from the resource

emitting the event message The identity object contains the following attributes. data.identity.authType The

type of authentication used.

data.identity.principalId The OCID of the principal.

data.identity.principalName The name of the user or service. This value is the friendly name associated

with principalId .


Question 3:

An online registration system Is currently hosted on one large Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCT) Bare metal compute Instance with attached block volume to store of the users\’ dat

A. The registration system accepts the Information from the user, Including documents and photos then performs automated verification and processing to check it the user is eligible for registration. The registration system becomes unavailable at tunes when there is a surge of users using the system the existing architecture needs improvement as it takes a long time for the system to complete the processing and the attached block volumes are not large enough to use data being uploaded by the users. Which Is the most effective option to achieve a highly scalable solution?

B. Attach more Block volumes as the data volume increase, use Oracle Notification Service (ONS) to distribute tasks to a pool of compute instances working In parallel, and Auto Scaling to dynamically size the pool of Instances depending on the number of notifications received from the Notification Service. Use Resource Manager stacks to replicate your architecture to another region.

C. Change your architecture to use an OCI Object Storage standard tier bucket, replace the single bare metal instance with a Oracle Streaming Service (OSS) to ingest the Incoming requests and distribute the tasks to a group of compute Instances with Auto Scaling

D. Upgrade your architecture to use a pool of Bare metal servers and configure them to use their local SSDs for faster data access Set up Oracle Streaming Service (OSS) to distribute the tasks to the pool of Bare metal Instances with Auto Scaling to dynamically increase or decrease the pool of compute instances depending on the length of the Streaming queue.

E. Upgrade your architecture to use more Block volumes as the data volume Increases. Replace the single bare metal instance with a group of compute instances with Auto Scaling to dynamically increase or decrease the compute instance pools depending on the traffic.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A data analytics company has been building Its now generation big data and analytics platform on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). They need a storage service that provide the scale and performance that their big data applications require such as high throughput to compute nodes with low latency file operations in addition, their data needs to be stored redundantly across multiple nodes In a single availability domain and allows concurrent connections from multiple compute Instances hosted on multiple availability domains. Which OCI storage service can you use to meet i his requirement?

A. Object Storage

B. File System Storage

C. Archive storage

D. Block Volume

Correct Answer: B

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure File Storage service provides a durable, scalable, secure, enterprise-grade network file system. You can connect to a File Storage service file system from any bare metal, virtual machine, or container instance in your Virtual Cloud Network (VCN). You can also access a file system from outside the VCN using Oracle Cloud Infrastructure FastConnect and Internet Protocol security (IPSec) virtual private network (VPN). Use the File Storage service when your application or workload includes big data and analytics, media processing, or content management, and you require Portable Operating System Interface (POSIX)compliant file system access semantics and concurrently accessible storage. The File Storage service is designed to meet the needs of applications and users that need an enterprise file system across a wide range of use cases


Question 5:

You have an Oracle database system in a virtual cloud network (VCN) that needs to be accessible on port

1521 from your on-premises network CIDR 172.17.0.0/24.

You have the following configuration currently.

Virtual cloud network (VCD) is associated with a Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG), and DRG has an

active IPSec connection with your on-premises data center.

Oracle database system is hosted in a private subnet

The private subnet route table has the following configuration The private subnet route table has following

configuration.

However, you are still unable to connect to the Oracle Database system. Which action will resolve this issue?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

You have provisioned a new VM.DenseIO2.24 compute instance with local NVMe drives. The compute instance is running production application. This is a write heavy application, with a significant Impact to the business it the application goes down. What should you do to help maintain write performance and protect against NVMe devices failure.

A. NVMe drive have built in capability to recover themself so no other actions are required

B. Configure RAID 6 for NVMe devices.

C. Configure RAID 1 for NVMe devices.

D. Configure RAID 10 for NVMe devices.

Correct Answer: D

VM.DeselO2.24 compute instance include locally attached NVMe devices. These devices provide extremely low latency, high performance block storage that is ideal for big data, OLTP, and any other workload that can benefit from high-performance block storage. A protected RAID array is the most recommended way to protect against an NVMe device failure. There are three RAID levels that can be used for the majority of workloads: RAID 1: An exact copy (or mirror) of a set of data on two or more disks; a classic RAID 1 mirrored pair contains two disks RAID 10: Stripes data across multiple mirrored pairs. As long as one disk in each mirrored pair is functional, data can be retrieved RAID 6: Block-level striping with two parity blocks distributed across all member disks If you need the best possible performance and can sacrifice some of your available space, then RAID 10 array is an option.


Question 7:

A civil engineering company is running an online portal In which engineers can upload there constructions photos, videos, and other digital files. There is a new requirement for you to implement: the online portal must offload the digital content to an Object Storage bucket for a period of 72 hours. After the provided time limit has elapsed, the portal will hold all the digital content locally and wait for the next offload period. Which option fulfills this requirement?

A. Create a pre-authenticated URL for the entire Object Storage bucket to read and list the content with an expiration of 72 hours.

B. Create a pre authenticated URL lot each object that Is uploaded to the Object Storage bucket with an expiration of 72 hours.

C. Create a Dynamic Group with matching rule for the portal compute Instance and grant access to the Object Storage bucket for 72 hours.

D. Create a pre authenticated URL for the entire Object Storage bucket to write content with an expiration of 72 hours.

Correct Answer: D

Pre-authenticated requests provide a way to let users access a bucket or an object without having their own credentials, as long as the request creator has permission to access those objects. For example, you can create a request that lets operations support user upload backups to a bucket without owning API keys. Or, you can create a request that lets a business partner update shared data in a bucket without owning API keys. When creating a pre-authenticated request, you have the following options: You can specify the name of a bucket that a pre-authenticated request user has write access to and can upload one or more objects to. You can specify the name of an object that a pre-authenticated request user can read from, write to, or read from and write to. Scope and Constraints Understand the following scope and constraints regarding pre-authenticated requests: Users can\’t list bucket contents. You can create an unlimited number of pre-authenticated requests. There is no time limit to the expiration date that you can set. You can\’t edit a pre-authenticated request. If you want to change user access options in response to changing requirements, you must create a new pre-authenticated request. The target and actions for a pre-authenticated request are based on the creator\’s permissions. The request is not, however, bound to the creator\’s account login credentials. If the creator\’s login credentials change, a pre-authenticated request is not affected. You cannot delete a bucket that has a pre-authenticated request associated with that bucket or with an object in that bucket.


Question 8:

You are working as a solution architect for an online retail store to create a portal to allow the users to pay for their groceries using credit cards. Since the application is not fully compliant with the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), your company is looking to use a third party payment service to process credit card payments. The third party service allows a maximum of Spelunk IP addresses 5 public IP addresses at a time However, your website is using Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Instance Pool Auto Scaling policy to create up to create up to 15 Instances during peak traffic demand, which are launched In VCN private in VCN private subnets and attached to an OCI public Load Balancer. Upon user payment, the portal connects to the payment service over the Interne! to complete the transaction What solution can you implement to make sure that all compute Instances can connect to the third party system to process the payments aw peak traffic demand?

A. Route credit card payment request from the compute instances through the NAT Gateway. On the third-party services, whitelist the public IP associated with the NAT Gateway.

B. Create an OCI Command Line Interface (CLI) script to automatically reserve public IP address for the compute instances. On the third-party services, whitelist the Reserved public IP.

C. Whitelist the Internet Gateway Public IP on the third party service and route all payment requests through the Internet Gateway.

D. Route payment request from the compute instances through the OCI Load Balancer, which will then be routed to the third party service.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Your customer recently ordered for a 1-Gbps Fast Connect connection In ap-tokyo-1 region of Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). They will us this to one Virtual cloud Network (VCN) in their production (OC1) tenancy and VCN In their development OC1 tenancy As a Solution Architect, how should yon configure and architect the connectivity between on premises and VCNs In OCI?

A. Create two private virtual circuits on the FastConnect link. Create two Dynamic Routing Gateways, one for each VCNs. Attach the virtual circuits to the dynamic routing gateways.

B. You cannot achieve connectivity using single FastConnect link as the production and the development VCNs-are in separate tenancies. Request one more FastConnect connection.

C. Create a single private virtual circuit over FastConnect and attach fastConnect to either of the VCN\’s Dynamic Routing Gateway. Use Remote Peering to peer production and development VCNs.

D. Create a hub-VCN that uses Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) to communicate with on-premises network over FastConnect. Connect the hub-VCN to the production VCN spoke and with development VCN spoke, each peered via their respective local Peering Gateway (LPG)

Correct Answer: D

There\’s an advanced routing scenario called transit routing that enables communication between an onpremises network and multiple VCNs over a single Oracle Cloud Infrastructure FastConnect or IPSec VPN. The VCNs must be in the same region and locally peered in a hub-and-spoke layout. As part of the scenario, the VCN that is acting as the hub has a route table associated with each LPG (typically route tables are associated with a VCN\’s subnets).


Question 10:

Which three scenarios are suitable for the Oracle Infrastructure (OCI) Autonomous transaction Processing Server less (ATP-S) deployment?

A. well established, online auction marketplace is running an application where there is database usage 24? but also has peaks of activity that the hard to predict when the peaks happen, the total activities may reach 3 times the normal activity level (Correct)

B. A small startup is deploying a new application fen eCommerce and it requires database to store customers\’ transactions the team b of what the load will look like since it is a new application. (Correct)

C. A midsize company is considering migrating its legacy on premises MongoDB database to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). The database has significantly higher workloads on weekends than weekdays

D. A developer working on an Internal project needs to use a database during work hours but doesn\’t need It during nights or weekends. the project budget requires her to keep costs low. (Correct)

E. A manufacturing company is running Oracle E-Business Suite application on premises. They are looking to move this application to OCI and they want to use a managed database offering for their database tier.

Correct Answer: ABD

MongoDB is a cross-platform document-oriented database program. Classified as a NoSQL database program, MongoDB uses JSON-like documents with schema, so the best to be migrated to Oracle NoSQL Database. https://blogs.oracle.com/nosql/migrate-mongodb-data-to-oracle-nosql-database Autonomous transaction Processing Serverless (ATP-S) isn\’t supported yet for EBS database


Question 11:

The Finance department of your company has reached out to you. They have customer sensitive data on

compute Instances In Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) which they want to store in OCI Storage for long

term retention and archival.

To meet security requirements they want to ensure this data is NOT transferred over public internet, even if

encrypted.

which they want to store In OCI Object Storage fin long term retention and archival To meet security

requirements they want to ensure this data is NOT transferred over public Internet, even it encrypted.

Which option meets this requirements?

A. Configure a NAT instance and all traffic between compute In Private subnet should use this NAT instance with Private IP as the route target.

B. Use NAT gateway with appropriate route table when transferring data. Then use NAT gateways\’ toggle (on/off) once data transfer is complete.

C. Use Service gateway with appropriate route table.

D. Use Storage gateway with appropriate firewall rule.

Correct Answer: C

Service Gateway is virtual router that you can add to your VCN. It provides a path for private network traffic between your VCN and supported services in the Oracle Services Network like Object Storage) so compute Instances in a private subnet in your VCN can back up data to Object Storage without needing public IP addresses or access to the intern


Question 12:

By copying block volume backups to another region at regular intervals, it makes it easier for you to rebuild applications and data in the destination region if a region-wide disaster occurs in the source region. Which IAM Policy statement allows the VolumeAdmins group to copy volume backups between regions \’

A. Allow group VolumeAdmins to use volumes in tenancy

B. Allow group VolumeAdmins to copy volume\’ backups in tenancy

C. Allow group VolumeAdmins to manage volume-family In tenancy

D. Allow group VolumeAdmins to inspect volumes in tenancy

Correct Answer: C

The backups feature of the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Block Volume service lets you make a point- intime snapshot of the data on a block volume.These backups can then be restored to new volumes either immediately after a backup or at a later time that you choose. You can copy block volume backups between regions using the Console, command line interface (CLI), SDKs, or REST APIs. To copy volume backups between regions, you must have permission to read and copy volume backups in the source region, and permission to create volume backups in the destination region. to do all things with block storage volumes, volume backups, and volume groups in all compartments with the exception of copying volume backups across regions. Allow group VolumeAdmins to manage volume-family in tenancy The aggregate resource type volume-family does not include the VOLUME_BACKUP_COPY permission, so to enable copying volume backups across regions you need to ensure that you include the third statement in that policy, which is: Allow group VolumeAdmins to use volume-backups in tenancy where request.permission=\’VOLUME _BACKUP_COPY\’


Question 13:

A global retailer is setting up the cloud architecture to be deployed in Oracle Cloud infrastructure (OCI) which will have thousands of users from two major geographical regions: North America and Asia Pacific. The requirements of the services are:

*

Service needs to be available 27/7 to avoid any business disruption

*

North American customers should be served by application running In North American regions

*

Asia Pacific customers should be served by applications running In Asia Pacific regions

*

Must be resilient enough to handle the outage of an entire OCI region

A.

OCl DNS, Traffic Management with Failover steering policy

B.

OCl DNS, Traffic Management with Geolocation steering policy. Health Checks

C.

OCl DNS, Traffic Management with Geolocation steering policy

D.

OCl DNS,\’ Traffic Management with Load Balancer steering policy, Health Checks

Correct Answer: B

GEOLOCATION STEERING Geolocation steering policies distribute DNS traffic to different endpoints based on the location of the end user. Customers can define geographic regions composed of originating continent, countries or states/ provinces (North America) and define a separate endpoint or set of endpoints for each region. Combine with Oracle Health Checks to fail over from one region to another


Question 14:

A retail company has several on-premises data centers which span multiple geographical locations. They plan to move some of their applications from on-premises data centers to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). For these applications running in OCI, they still need to interact with applications running on their on-premises data centers to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). for these applications running in OCI. they still need to interact with applications running on their on-premises data centers. These applications require highly available, fault-tolerant network connections between on premises data centers and OCI. Which option should you recommend to provide the highest level of redundancy?

A. Oracle cloud Infrastructure provides network redundancy by default so that no other operations are required

B. If your data centers span multiple, geographical locations, use only the specific IP address as a static route for the specific geographical location

C. Set up both IPSec VPN and FastConnect to connect your on premises data centers to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure.

D. Use FastConnect private peering only to ensure secure access from your data center to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure

E. Set up a single IPSec VPN connection (rom your data center to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure since It is cost effective

Correct Answer: B

If your data centers span multiple geographical locations, we recommend using a broad CIDR (0.0.0.0/0) as a static route in addition to the CIDR of the specific geographical location. This broad CIDR provides high availability and flexibility to your network design. For instance, the following diagram shows two networks in separate geographical areas that each connect to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure. Each area has a single on-premises router, so two IPSec VPN connections can be created. Note that each IPSec VPN connection has two static routes: one for the CIDR of the particular geographical area, and a broad 0.0.0.0/0 static route.


Question 15:

A global retailer has decided to re-design its e-commerce platform to have a micro-services architecture.

They would like to decouple application architecture into smaller, independent services using Oracle Cloud

Infrastructure (OCI). They have decided to use both containers and servers technologies to run these

application instances.

Which option should you recommend to build this new platform?

A. Install a kubernetes cluster on OCI and use OCI event service.

B. Use Oracle Container Engine for kubernetes, OCI Registry and OCI Functions.

C. Use OCI Resource Manager to automate compute Instances provisioning and use OCI Streaming service.

D. Use OCI functions, OCI object storage and OCI event service.

Correct Answer: B

Oracle Functions is a fully managed, multi-tenant, highly scalable, on-demand, Functions-as-a- Service platform. It is built on enterprise-grade Oracle Cloud Infrastructure and powered by the Fn Project open source engine. Use Oracle Functions (sometimes abbreviated to just Functions) when you want to focus on writing code to meet business needs.

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for Kubernetes is a fully-managed, scalable, and highly available service that you can use to deploy your containerized applications to the cloud. Use Container Engine for Kubernetes (sometimes abbreviated to just OKE) when your development team wants to reliably build, deploy, and manage cloud-native applications. You specify the compute resources that your applications require, and Container Engine for Kubernetes provisions them on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure in an existing OCI tenancy.