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Question 1:

A security client needs a surveillance solution to support 239 Cameras. They expect to generate 2PB of data and require a 10Gb network infrastructure in a single rack. Which solution should you recommend to meet the customer requirements?

A. HPE Moonshot

B. HPE MSA

C. HPE Apollo Servers

D. HPE SimplVity 380

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-6064ENW.pdf


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer has been using VEEAM and the HPE StoreOnce 3620 shown in the exhibit to backup their environment. The customer\’s legal team has asked to double their retention times for all backup sets, and they are starting to run out of space on the StoreOnce. Which options could you recommend that the customer add to their existing configuration to accommodate the new requirement? (Select two. Each option represents a separate solution.)

A. HPE StoreOnce Cloud Bank Storage

B. HPE StoreOnce 3620 24TB Capacity Upgrade Kit

C. HPE StoreOnce Gen4 16Gb Fibre Channel Network Card

D. HPE StoreOnce Gen4 10/25Gb SFP Network card

E. HPE D3710 Storage Enclosure

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/uk/en/product-catalog/storage/disk-based-backup-systems/pip.specifications.hpe-storeonce-systems.1011014655.html


Question 3:

What is the correct cable type to use when connecting a pair of switches using Long Range (LR) Transceivers?

A. Direct Attach Cable (DAC)

B. Twin-Ax

C. Single Mode Fiber

D. Multi-mode Fiber

Correct Answer: C

Single-mode uses a single relatively straight beam of light, transmitted directly through a core of glass (or occasionally plastic) that\’s usually 50 microns across. Single-mode accommodates large power levels, and is almost exclusively used for Long Range (LR) applications.

Reference: https://info.hummingbirdnetworks.com/blog/answering-your-frequently-asked-s-about-different-types-of-10-gigabit-cisco-sfp-units


Question 4:

When is it appropriate for a customer to implement HPE OneView Standard?

A. To manage multiple servers

B. To monitor their services

C. To enable the Advanced iLO license

D. To update firmware

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/c04111367.pdf


Question 5:

You are creating a configuration for a new Nimble HF40 array. Which tool should you use to ensure that you include adequate cache in the configuration?

A. HPE NinjaSTARS

B. HPE Storage Sizer

C. HPE OneView

D. HPE SPOCK

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A customer needs a single, dual-processor server for an Enterprise Resource Planning solution for a single office. The customer application uses a mix of HDDs and SSDs and up to 3TB of RAM. Which HPE Solution should you propose?

A. HPE Synergy Solution

B. HPE Apollo 2000 Server

C. HPE ML350 Gen10

D. HPE ML110 Gen10

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-8758ENW.pdf


Question 7:

What should you configure to limit the scope of broadcast domains in an Ethernet network?

A. Trunks

B. VSAN

C. Static ARP

D. VLAN

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://assets.ext.hpe.com/is/content/hpedam/documents/a00069000-9999/a00069468/a00069468enw.pdf


Question 8:

You are validating a configuration prior to quoting it for the customer. You plan to propose the following configuration:

Two HPE DL380 Gen10 servers with dual processors, 256GB of memory, dual 10Gb NICs, SN1100Q 16Gb dual port FC HBA, dual 800W power supplies, and high temperature fan kit HPE Nimble HF20H with 11TB storage, 960GB of cache,

dual port 10GbE NIC, and 16Gb dual port FC adapter kit

Two SN3000B FC Switches

Which tool should you use to verify firmware compatibility between the storage and server components in this proposed solution?

A. HPE NinjaSTARS

B. HPE One Configuration Advanced

C. HPE OneView Advanced

D. HPE SPOCK

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

A Network administrator connects two switches together with multiple links of the same speed, duplex, and media type. The administrator expected the links to be aggregated, but they are not. The administrator confirmed that the ports are

part of the appropriate link aggregation groups and that the permitted VLANs match.

Switch A has the lower LACP System Priority.

Which LACP operation states describe the failure above?

A. Switch A: Active; Switch B: Active

B. Switch A: Active; Switch B: Passive

C. Switch A: Passive; Switch B: Passive

D. Switch A: Passive; Switch B: Active

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

A customer has a VMware environment with HPE ProLiant servers and Nimble storage. They have been using a Windows VM to provide file services for their employees. The customer is experiencing performance issues with the solution

due to memory constraints on the virtual environment.

What could be added to the existing environment that will provide dedicated file services with better performance that would still utilize the existing storage and backup solutions?

A. HPE StoreEver 30750

B. HPE Storage Performance File Controller

C. HPE StoreEasy 1460 Storage

D. HPE StoreEasy 1650 Expanded Storage

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

The information shown is displayed for a Nimble array you are installing. The customer\’s administrator has asked you for the speed at which the Nimble ports are connecting to their SAN switches, and you have run the command shown to

determine the number of gigabits per second used by this port connection.

What speed does the exhibit indicate is in use?

A. 18

B. 32

C. 6

D. 8

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

An HPE customer wants to perform is simplified update of firmware and drivers among their 100 HPE Gen9 and Gen10 racked servers. Which HPE software tool should the customer use to minimize the time required to perform this activity.

A. HPE Smart Update Manager

B. HPE OneView Standard

C. HPE ProLiant Support Pack

D. HPE iLO Amplifier Pack

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/us/en/servers/smart-update.html


Question 13:

A customer wants to install an HPE Proliant server that has a single dual port 10Gb NIC. Which NIC feature should you introduce to allow each 10Gb port to be seen as four individual adapters in the operating system?

A. NPAR

B. RoCE

C. FCoE

D. RDMA

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/getpdf.aspx/c04312719.pdf?ver=12


Question 14:

What is a feature of the MSA 1050 that will help your Storage Customer better utilize storage resources?

A. block, file, and object access

B. Triple parity RAID

C. Automated Tiering

D. 99.9999% guaranteed availability

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/A00015961ENW.pdf?


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is planning to deploy a branch office server rack What should you change in your configuration to ensure it meets the customer requirements?

A. Change the controller to an AF20.

B. Change the 10GbE Optical ports to Fibre Channel.

C. Change the 10GbE Optical ports to 10BaseT.

D. Change the controller to an HF20H.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

You are in the process of developing a business continuity plan for your network design. You must analyze data about weather patterns, maintenance history pertaining to leased buildings, and the frequency of power failures. For which purpose would you collect this information?

A. risk assessment

B. redundancy

C. high availability

D. disaster recovery

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

You are asked to provide a design proposal for a service provider network. The design must ensure that customers are able to send Layer 2 traffic between sites. In this scenario, which VPN technology would be used to accomplish this task?

A. IPsec VPN

B. Layer 3 VPN

C. GRE

D. EVPN

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

You are asked to provide a design proposal for an enterprise customer that currently has a three-tier switching infrastructure. The customer wants your design to collapse their Layer 2 infrastructure into two distinct layers. In this scenario, what are two benefits of moving to the new infrastructure? (Choose two.)

A. The total number of devices is increased.

B. The overall network performance is increased.

C. The number of connections between devices is decreased.

D. The number of protocols used is decreased.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, you are designing a Layer 2 data center and you want to make sure that all the links between the access tier and the aggregation tier are used. What should you do to accomplish this task?

A. Use VRRP on Agg-1 and Agg-2.

B. Place Agg-1 and Agg-2 in a Virtual Chassis.

C. Use RSTP on all devices.

D. Use BGP load balancing on all devices.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which Juniper automation tool enables administrators to write custom Python scripts that use the Junos XML API?

A. REST Explorer

B. JSNAPy

C. JET

D. PyEZ

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

What are two phases in Juniper\’s lifecycle approach when designing a network? (Choose two.)

A. plan

B. build

C. buy

D. oversee

Correct Answer: AB


Question 7:

You are designing a WAN implementation to securely connect two remote sites to the corporate office. A public Internet connection will be used for the connections. Which statement is true in this situation?

A. The connection should be secured using IPsec.

B. The WAN edge devices must support MPLS.

C. The connections support Layer 2 traffic bridging.

D. The service provider can isolate traffic in a private MPLS instance.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What is the first step of business continuity planning?

A. know your network

B. test the plan

C. assess the risk

D. formulate the plan

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

What are two features used to enable high availability? (Choose two.)

A. VRRP

B. chassis clustering

C. full-duplex mode

D. SNMP

Correct Answer: AB


Question 10:

You are evaluating an existing network to determine requirements for a network upgrade. In this scenario, which statement is true?

A. A network baseline identifies devices that do not have redundant components.

B. A network baseline identifies traffic growth patterns across network devices.

C. A network baseline identifies how many users are connected to the network.

D. A network baseline identifies the type and level of traffic load on the network.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

You are performing a risk assessment for a network design. Which statement is true in this scenario?

A. Some risks can be safely ignored.

B. The likelihood of a risk occurring should not be considered.

C. A network must be designed for an uptime of five nines.

D. All identified risks must have a mitigation plan in place.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which two statements are true regarding a Virtual Chassis? (Choose two.)

A. A Virtual Chassis must be configured on the same series but not the same model.

B. A Virtual Chassis supports up to 10 participating devices.

C. A Virtual Chassis supports only two participating devices.

D. A Virtual Chassis can be configured on mixed series and models.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 13:

Which two statements are true regarding greenfield projects? (Choose two.)

A. The amount of floor space and cooling are not defined as part of a greenfield project.

B. In greenfield projects, the existing floor space and cooling may need to be considered.

C. Greenfield projects are typically new networks with few or no restraints to consider.

D. Greenfield projects typically consist of existing network components with extensive integration required.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 14:

Which two pieces of information should be included in an RFP response? (Choose two.)

A. a list of contributing material including technical publications, training guides, and courseware used to build the proposed design

B. design details including information about the devices, protocols, and technologies included in the proposed design

C. configuration details including proposed devices, protocols, and technologies included in the proposed design

D. a network topology including a high-level logical design as well as low-level physical design of the proposed network

Correct Answer: BD


Question 15:

Which two features would cause latency in a WAN connection? (Choose two.)

A. IPS

B. syslog

C. telemetry

D. UTM antivirus

Correct Answer: AD


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Question 1:

A company has deployed an e-commerce web application in a new AWS account. An Amazon RDS for MySQL Multi-AZ DB instance is part of this deployment with a database-1.xxxxxxxxxxxx.us-east1.rds.amazonaws.com endpoint listening on port 3306. The company\’s Database Specialist is able to log in to MySQL and run queries from the bastion host using these details.

When users try to utilize the application hosted in the AWS account, they are presented with a generic error message. The application servers are logging a “could not connect to server: Connection times out” error message to Amazon CloudWatch Logs.

What is the cause of this error?

A. The user name and password the application is using are incorrect.

B. The security group assigned to the application servers does not have the necessary rules to allow inbound connections from the DB instance.

C. The security group assigned to the DB instance does not have the necessary rules to allow inbound connections from the application servers.

D. The user name and password are correct, but the user is not authorized to use the DB instance.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://forums.aws.amazon.com/thread.jspa?threadID=129700


Question 2:

An AWS CloudFormation stack that included an Amazon RDS DB instance was accidentally deleted and recent data was lost. A Database Specialist needs to add RDS settings to the CloudFormation template to reduce the chance of accidental instance data loss in the future.

Which settings will meet this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Set DeletionProtection to True

B. Set MultiAZ to True

C. Set TerminationProtection to True

D. Set DeleteAutomatedBackups to False

E. Set DeletionPolicy to Delete

F. Set DeletionPolicy to Retain

Correct Answer: ACF

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSCloudFormation/latest/UserGuide/aws-attributedeletionpolicy.html https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/cloudformation-accidental-updates/


Question 3:

A Database Specialist is troubleshooting an application connection failure on an Amazon Aurora DB cluster with multiple Aurora Replicas that had been running with no issues for the past 2 months. The connection failure lasted for 5 minutes and corrected itself after that. The Database Specialist reviewed the Amazon RDS events and determined a failover event occurred at that time. The failover process took around 15 seconds to complete.

What is the MOST likely cause of the 5-minute connection outage?

A. After a database crash, Aurora needed to replay the redo log from the last database checkpoint

B. The client-side application is caching the DNS data and its TTL is set too high

C. After failover, the Aurora DB cluster needs time to warm up before accepting client connections

D. There were no active Aurora Replicas in the Aurora DB cluster

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A company is deploying a solution in Amazon Aurora by migrating from an on-premises system. The IT department has established an AWS Direct Connect link from the company\’s data center. The company\’s Database Specialist has selected the option to require SSL/TLS for connectivity to prevent plaintext data from being set over the network. The migration appears to be working successfully, and the data can be queried from a desktop machine.

Two Data Analysts have been asked to query and validate the data in the new Aurora DB cluster. Both Analysts are unable to connect to Aurora. Their user names and passwords have been verified as valid and the Database Specialist can connect to the DB cluster using their accounts. The Database Specialist also verified that the security group configuration allows network from all corporate IP addresses.

What should the Database Specialist do to correct the Data Analysts’ inability to connect?

A. Restart the DB cluster to apply the SSL change.

B. Instruct the Data Analysts to download the root certificate and use the SSL certificate on the connection string to connect.

C. Add explicit mappings between the Data Analysts’ IP addresses and the instance in the security group assigned to the DB cluster.

D. Modify the Data Analysts’ local client firewall to allow network traffic to AWS.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A company is concerned about the cost of a large-scale, transactional application using Amazon DynamoDB that only needs to store data for 2 days before it is deleted. In looking at the tables, a Database Specialist notices that much of the data is months old, and goes back to when the application was first deployed.

What can the Database Specialist do to reduce the overall cost?

A. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and create an AWS Glue transformation to delete entries more than 2 days old.

B. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and enable DynamoDB Streams on each table.

C. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and enable time to live (TTL) on each table.

D. Create an Amazon CloudWatch Events event to export the data to Amazon S3 daily using AWS Data Pipeline and then truncate the Amazon DynamoDB table.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A clothing company uses a custom ecommerce application and a PostgreSQL database to sell clothes to thousands of users from multiple countries. The company is migrating its application and database from its on-premises data center to the AWS Cloud. The company has selected Amazon EC2 for the application and Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL for the database. The company requires database passwords to be changed every 60 days. A Database Specialist needs to ensure that the credentials used by the web application to connect to the database are managed securely.

Which approach should the Database Specialist take to securely manage the database credentials?

A. Store the credentials in a text file in an Amazon S3 bucket. Restrict permissions on the bucket to the IAM role associated with the instance profile only. Modify the application to download the text file and retrieve the credentials on start up. Update the text file every 60 days.

B. Configure IAM database authentication for the application to connect to the database. Create an IAM user and map it to a separate database user for each ecommerce user. Require users to update their passwords every 60 days.

C. Store the credentials in AWS Secrets Manager. Restrict permissions on the secret to only the IAM role associated with the instance profile. Modify the application to retrieve the credentials from Secrets Manager on start up. Configure the rotation interval to 60 days.

D. Store the credentials in an encrypted text file in the application AMI. Use AWS KMS to store the key for decrypting the text file. Modify the application to decrypt the text file and retrieve the credentials on start up. Update the text file and publish a new AMI every 60 days.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A financial services company is developing a shared data service that supports different applications from throughout the company. A Database Specialist designed a solution to leverage Amazon ElastiCache for Redis with cluster mode enabled to enhance performance and scalability. The cluster is configured to listen on port 6379.

Which combination of steps should the Database Specialist take to secure the cache data and protect it from unauthorized access? (Choose three.)

A. Enable in-transit and at-rest encryption on the ElastiCache cluster.

B. Ensure that Amazon CloudWatch metrics are configured in the ElastiCache cluster.

C. Ensure the security group for the ElastiCache cluster allows all inbound traffic from itself and inbound traffic on TCP port 6379 from trusted clients only.

D. Create an IAM policy to allow the application service roles to access all ElastiCache API actions.

E. Ensure the security group for the ElastiCache clients authorize inbound TCP port 6379 and port 22 traffic from the trusted ElastiCache cluster\’s security group.

F. Ensure the cluster is created with the auth-token parameter and that the parameter is used in all subsequent commands.

Correct Answer: ABE

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/getting-started/tutorials/setting-up-a-redis-cluster-with-amazonelasticache/


Question 8:

A company is running an Amazon RDS for PostgeSQL DB instance and wants to migrate it to an Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster. The current database is 1 TB in size. The migration needs to have minimal downtime.

What is the FASTEST way to accomplish this?

A. Create an Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster. Set up replication from the source RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance using AWS DMS to the target DB cluster.

B. Use the pg_dump and pg_restore utilities to extract and restore the RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance to the Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster.

C. Create a database snapshot of the RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance and use this snapshot to create the Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster.

D. Migrate data from the RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance to an Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster using an Aurora Replica. Promote the replica during the cutover.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A Database Specialist is migrating a 2 TB Amazon RDS for Oracle DB instance to an RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance using AWS DMS. The source RDS Oracle DB instance is in a VPC in the us-east-1 Region. The target RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance is in a VPC in the use-west-2 Region.

Where should the AWS DMS replication instance be placed for the MOST optimal performance?

A. In the same Region and VPC of the source DB instance

B. In the same Region and VPC as the target DB instance

C. In the same VPC and Availability Zone as the target DB instance

D. In the same VPC and Availability Zone as the source DB instance

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

The Development team recently executed a database script containing several data definition language (DDL) and data manipulation language (DML) statements on an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster. The release accidentally deleted thousands of rows from an important table and broke some application functionality. This was discovered 4 hours after the release. Upon investigation, a Database Specialist tracked the issue to a DELETE command in the script with an incorrect WHERE clause filtering the wrong set of rows. The Aurora DB cluster has Backtrack enabled with an 8-hour backtrack window. The Database Administrator also took a manual snapshot of the DB cluster before the release started. The database needs to be returned to the correct state as quickly as possible to resume full application functionality. Data loss must be minimal. How can the Database Specialist accomplish this?

A. Quickly rewind the DB cluster to a point in time before the release using Backtrack.

B. Perform a point-in-time recovery (PITR) of the DB cluster to a time before the release and copy the deleted rows from the restored database to the original database.

C. Restore the DB cluster using the manual backup snapshot created before the release and change the application configuration settings to point to the new DB cluster.

D. Create a clone of the DB cluster with Backtrack enabled. Rewind the cloned cluster to a point in time before the release. Copy deleted rows from the clone to the original database.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

A company is load testing its three-tier production web application deployed with an AWS CloudFormation template on AWS. The Application team is making changes to deploy additional Amazon EC2 and AWS Lambda resources to expand the load testing capacity. A Database Specialist wants to ensure that the changes made by the Application team will not change the Amazon RDS database resources already deployed. Which combination of steps would allow the Database Specialist to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. Review the stack drift before modifying the template

B. Create and review a change set before applying it

C. Export the database resources as stack outputs

D. Define the database resources in a nested stack

E. Set a stack policy for the database resources

Correct Answer: AD


Question 12:

A company is hosting critical business data in an Amazon Redshift cluster. Due to the sensitive nature of the data, the cluster is encrypted at rest using AWS KMS. As a part of disaster recovery requirements, the company needs to copy the Amazon Redshift snapshots to another Region.

Which steps should be taken in the AWS Management Console to meet the disaster recovery requirements?

A. Create a new KMS customer master key in the source Region. Switch to the destination Region, enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region snapshots, and use the KMS key of the source Region.

B. Create a new IAM role with access to the KMS key. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region replication using the new IAM role, and use the KMS key of the source Region.

C. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region snapshots in the source Region, and create a snapshot copy grant and use a KMS key in the destination Region.

D. Create a new KMS customer master key in the destination Region and create a new IAM role with access to the new KMS key. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region replication in the source Region and use the KMS key of the destination Region.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/redshift/latest/mgmt/working-with-snapshots.html


Question 13:

A company has a production Amazon Aurora Db cluster that serves both online transaction processing (OLTP) transactions and compute-intensive reports. The reports run for 10% of the total cluster uptime while the OLTP transactions run all the time. The company has benchmarked its workload and determined that a six-node Aurora DB cluster is appropriate for the peak workload. The company is now looking at cutting costs for this DB cluster, but needs to have a sufficient number of nodes in the cluster to support the workload at different times. The workload has not changed since the previous benchmarking exercise. How can a Database Specialist address these requirements with minimal user involvement?

A. Split up the DB cluster into two different clusters: one for OLTP and the other for reporting. Monitor and set up replication between the two clusters to keep data consistent.

B. Review all evaluate the peak combined workload. Ensure that utilization of the DB cluster node is at an acceptable level. Adjust the number of instances, if necessary.

C. Use the stop cluster functionality to stop all the nodes of the DB cluster during times of minimal workload. The cluster can be restarted again depending on the workload at the time.

D. Set up automatic scaling on the DB cluster. This will allow the number of reader nodes to adjust automatically to the reporting workload, when needed.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

A company is running a finance application on an Amazon RDS for MySQL DB instance. The application is

governed by multiple financial regulatory agencies. The RDS DB instance is set up with security groups to

allow access to certain Amazon EC2 servers only. AWS KMS is used for encryption at rest.

Which step will provide additional security?

A. Set up NACLs that allow the entire EC2 subnet to access the DB instance

B. Disable the master user account

C. Set up a security group that blocks SSH to the DB instance

D. Set up RDS to use SSL for data in transit

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/database/applying-best-practices-for-securing-sensitive-data-inamazon-rds/


Question 15:

A company needs a data warehouse solution that keeps data in a consistent, highly structured format. The company requires fast responses for end-user queries when looking at data from the current year, and users must have access to the full 15-year dataset, when needed. This solution also needs to handle a fluctuating number incoming queries. Storage costs for the 100 TB of data must be kept low.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Leverage an Amazon Redshift data warehouse solution using a dense storage instance type while keeping all the data on local Amazon Redshift storage. Provision enough instances to support high demand.

B. Leverage an Amazon Redshift data warehouse solution using a dense storage instance to store the most recent data. Keep historical data on Amazon S3 and access it using the Amazon Redshift Spectrum layer. Provision enough instances to support high demand.

C. Leverage an Amazon Redshift data warehouse solution using a dense storage instance to store the most recent data. Keep historical data on Amazon S3 and access it using the Amazon Redshift Spectrum layer. Enable Amazon Redshift Concurrency Scaling.

D. Leverage an Amazon Redshift data warehouse solution using a dense storage instance to store the most recent data. Keep historical data on Amazon S3 and access it using the Amazon Redshift Spectrum layer. Leverage Amazon Redshift elastic resize.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

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E. Labels

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which statement about camera view is FALSE?

A. You can modify camera position and target points in a 3D view only

B. You can change the crop region by moving the top, bottom, right, and left clip planes

C. The camera target point defines the initial axis of rotation for a camera view

D. You can modify detail level and ,model graphics style of camera views

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which viewport instance properly sets the display style to Hidden Line or Wireframe?

A. View Scale

B. Detail Level

C. Model Graphics Style

D. Detail Number

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

When you create a floor on a level, the bottom of the floor is placed on that level, with the thickness projecting upward.

A. False

B. True

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which TWO tools help you save steps while placing many window types in a project?

A. Move

B. Split Face

C. Match Type

D. Create Similar

Correct Answer: CD


Question 6:

Which key rotates a component counter clockwise by 90 degrees?

A. SPACEBAR

B. CTRL

C. ENTER

D. ALT

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

What is the first step that you perform to change a section view to a detail view?

A. Select the section or callout symbol

B. On the View menu, click View Properties

C. Create a new section or callout view

D. Open the parent view

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

You can create a walkthrough by placing keyframes to generate a camera path in a plan view.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

When a family with labeled dimensions as instance parameters is placed in a project, what controls display to help you work with it?

A. Shared Parameters

B. Shape handles

C. Place families

D. Templates

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which tool copies walls or lines at a numerically assigned distance?

A. Align

B. Trim

C. Split

D. Offset

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which standard views are created by the default project template?

A. Roof Plan

B. North Elevation

C. Site Plan

D. Level 1 Floor Plan

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 12:

What connects the keyframes that you place in a plan view while drawing a walkthrough path?

A. Line

B. Field

C. Spline

D. Dashed line

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which settings are included when you define a project environment?

A. Line Styles

B. Weather

C. Display

D. Colours

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 14:

Which key flips the orientation of a compound wall in plan view?

A. tab

B. spacebar

C. ENTER

D. SHIFT

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which statement about Detail Views is FALSE?

A. You can only delete them from the parent view

B. By default they appear only in the parent view

C. They automatically have a different view scale from the parent view

D. They appear in a separate section of the Project Brower

E. You create them with the Callout or Section Tool

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Your customer has implemented Oracle Project Portfolio Management Cloud recently and they have hired new employees for their Professions Services business. These employees are set up in Oracle Human Capital Management Cloud, but the Project Administrators are unable to add them as resources in the Planning Resource Breakdown Structure.

What are three conditions for new employees to show up in the list?

A. All new employees created as persons must have an active project role.

B. All new employees created as persons must have an active supervisor.

C. All new employees created as persons must have an active assignment.

D. All new employees created as persons must be assigned to a department.

E. Current date is before the effective date of the resource, and you did not enable the “Include people with future-dated effective start dates” option during the search.

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 2:

You configure one OTBI using Project Cross Subject Area Analysis Real Time. You notice that all measures (Budget, Forecast, Cost, Commitments, Revenue, and Invoice) are not available for Bill-To-Customer and Contract and Contract Line dimensions.

Identify the reason for this behavior.

A. The Bill-To-Customer dimension applies to Invoice measures, and the Contract and Contract Line dimensions apply to Revenue and Invoice measures.

B. The Bill-To-Customer dimension does not apply to Invoice measures, but the Contract and Contract Line dimensions apply only to Revenue and Invoice measures.

C. The Bill-To-Customer dimension applies only to Invoice measures, but the Contract and Contract Line dimensions do not apply to Revenue and Invoice measures.

D. The Contract and Contract Line dimensions apply only to Invoice measures.

E. The Bill-To-Customer dimension applies only to Revenue and Invoice measures.

Correct Answer: E


Question 3:

You recently made some changes to a project contract and the current status of the contract is Under Amendment. Identify the correct sequence of activities that can take place on that contract.

A. On Hold > Pending Approval > Active

B. On Hold > Pending Acceptance > Active

C. Pending Approval > Pending Acceptance > Active

D. Pending Acceptance > Pending Approval > Active

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/common/FASCC/FASCC1124283.htm


Question 4:

You create a contract with two contract lines: Line 1 and Line 2. You create separate bill plans: A for contract Line 1 and B for contract Line 2, with a different bill set number (11 for Bill Plan A and 22 for Bill Plan B). Then Bill Plan A is allocated against Project X – Task 10, and Bill Plan B is allocated against Project Y – Task 30.

Based on the preceding setup, you are generating invoices. Identify two correct statements about invoice generation in this scenario.

A. Invoice generation does not depend on bill plan. The invoices are created based on the contract line.

B. Both the contract lines create only a single invoice because they are using the same contract.

C. Two invoices are created using the same contract.

D. Bill set number drives the grouping of transactions.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 5:

Your customer wants a project start date to cascade to the project tasks, bust does not want the finish date to be cascade. Identify the default setup in a project template that can be used to enable this.

A. Do not cascade date changes.

B. Cascade change to the start date and the finish date.

C. Cascade change to the finish date.

D. Cascade change to the start date.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E25054_01/fusionapps.1111/e20384/F552279AN65801.htm


Question 6:

As you go through the first-quarter close for your customer, you notice that the burden amounts calculated do not seem to be right. Based on the calculations, you notice that the amounts calculated are not considering the burden schedule override at a task level, which was done during the second month of the quarter.

Identify the reason for this problem.

A. You can enable automatic reprocessing of expenditure items processed before the burden schedule change.

B. Only new expenditure items charged to the task use the new burden schedule; expenditure items processed earlier cannot be reprocessed.

C. All expenditure items charged to the task use the new burden schedule.

D. Only new expenditure items charged to the task use the new burden schedule; expenditure items processed earlier can be manually marked for reprocessing.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/r13_update17b/projectcs_gs/OAPJC/OAPJC1071490.htm#OAPJC1071482


Question 7:

You are implementing Project Portfolio Management for a global professional services organization. In their Consulting Services line of business, it is common to use resources from different business units based on the skills required. Therefore, cross-charge transactions happen between business units within the same legal entity. Transfer price calculations need to be based on raw costs, with no further adjustments to transfer price.

Identify two setups that can drive this borrowed and lent agreement.

A. Transfer price basis must be Raw Cost and calculation method must be Rate Schedule.

B. Transfer price basis must be Raw Cost and calculation method must be Basis Only.

C. A document entry such as straight time must be enabled for cross-charge transactions.

D. Transfer price basis must be Burdened Cost, and calculation method must be Burden Rate Schedule.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 8:

You cannot generate invoices for a project expenditure item. After running the Generate Invoices program for a billable expenditure item and active contract, the process completes successfully but without any billing, and does not provide any error logs. The program\’s processing summary is as follows: Billing Event Errors 0 Ineligible Contracts 0 Successful Billing Events Created 0 Ineligible Contract Lines 0 Billing Transaction Exception Warnings 0 Ineligible Associated Projects 0 Draft Invoice Exception Errors 0 Ineligible Events 0 Draft Invoice Exception Warnings 0 Successful Draft Invoices 0

What was the invoice method classification set to that caused this behavior?

A. Amount Based

B. Percent Complete

C. Rate Based

D. As Incurred

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E51367_01/projectop_gs/OAPJB/F1087458AN139C2.htm


Question 9:

Your customer wants to automatically allocate unassigned asset lines and common costs across multiple assets based on the construction-in-process cost of each asset.

Identify the asset allocation method that you must use as the default method while configuring project types to meet this requirement.

A. Estimated Cost

B. Standard Unit Cost

C. Current Cost

D. Spread Evenly

E. Actual Unit

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel9/projectcs_gs/OAPJC/F1071495AN175A1.htm


Question 10:

Which three Cost Collection Flexfield core attributes can be derived during import if not explicitly entered in a transaction document?

A. Work Type

B. Capitalizable Flag

C. Billable Flag

D. Expenditure Type

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 11:

Your customer has the following setups on the project plan type that they are using for their projects: Use Task Planned Dates as Task Assignment Dates = Yes Automatically Roll Up Task Planned Dates = Yes Synchronize Task Transaction Dates with Planned Dates = No

With these setups in place, you perform the following actions:

1.

Create a new subtask (Sub Task 1) with a start date of 15-Jun-2016 on the project that has as start date of 01-Jul-2016.

2.

Create another new subtask (Sub Task 2) after the previous action is saved. What would the correct behavior of the application be after these actions?

A. After the creation and saving of Sub Task 1, Task Start Date would be changed to 01-Jul-2016 and Sub Task 2 would be created with 01-Jul-2016.

B. After the creation of Sub Task 1, Project Start Date would remain unchanged as 01-Jul-2016 and Sub Task 2 would be created with 15-Jun-2016.

C. Project Start Date would remain unchanged as 01-Jul-2016 for both actions but the start dates on both subtasks would remain 15-Jun-2016.

D. After the creation of Sub Task 1, Project Start Date would be changed to 15-Jun-2016 and Sub Task 2 would be created with 15-Jun-2016.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which four standard objects can you configure to include business specific attributes by using Application Composer for Project Execution Management?

A. Backlog Items

B. Project Issues

C. Project Change Orders

D. Project Deliverables

E. Project Resource Request

F. Project Milestones

Correct Answer: ABDE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/project-portfolio-management/18b/oapex/define-common-project-execution-options.html#OAPEX3079890


Question 13:

What are three configuration items that you need to set up by using the project Organizations functional area in Project Financial management configurations?

A. Manage Project Organization Classifications

B. Manage Business Unit

C. Manage Project Unit Options

D. Manage Project Unit Organizations

E. Manage Project Types

Correct Answer: ABE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E60665_01/projectcs_gs/OAPFM/F1125343AN100B5.htm


Question 14:

Your company creates a separate project for infrastructure services, so as to track these costs separately and then allocate them to various projects that use the services of the infrastructure team. You want to allocate these costs by first attributing a fixed percentage of the source amount to each project and then spread it across tasks based on the actual labor hours charged to each task.

Which allocation basis method would you use to meet this requirement?

A. prorate

B. target percentage and prorate

C. spread evenly

D. target percentage and spread evenly

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which three tools are available for accessing REST APIs?

A. Programming Language

B. Web Browser

C. cURL

D. Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence

Correct Answer: BCD


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Question 1:

View the exhibits.

Based on the page layout, what is wrong with the search page and how should you fix it?

A. The Add actions should not be available; check the component definition foe the Item Label

B. Include History and Correction should be displayed; check the Internet tab of the Component Properties dialog box

C. The Add action should not be available; check the Internet tab of the Component Properties dialog box

D. Include History and Correction should be displayed; check the Use tab of the Component Properties dialog box

E. The Add action should not be available; check the Use tab of the Component Properties dialog box

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57990_01/pt853pbh2/eng/pt/tpst/task_WorkingwithSearchPages-027de6.html#topofpage


Question 2:

Which three actions occur during the component build process? (Choose three.)

A. Component record RowInit PeopleCode runs

B. Record field FieldFormula PeopleCode runs

C. Component record RowInsert PeopleCode runs

D. All component-level PeopleCode runs

E. Record field RowInsert PeopleCode runs

F. Record field RowInit PeopleCode runs

G. All rows in the record are loaded into the component buffer

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 3:

Which PeopleCode program will take the input student name values and produce the output values?

A. B. C. D. E. F.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

An end user saves the data after making a change to their personal address, and the system updates the table for that page. In this case, that personal address information is also stored in a table used to generate reports. Upon saving the

address, the system also updates the equivalent information stored in the reporting table.

What form of maintaining referential integrity has been implemented in this scenario?

A. Parent-child relationship

B. Occurs level

C. Prompt table edit

D. PeopleCode running a SQLExec statement

E. Expert entry

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which two statements are true about how PeopleCode on the SavePreChange and SavePostChange events is processed? (Choose two.)

A. When placed at the component record level, such PeopleCode triggers a Save when a row is changed

B. When placed at the component record level, such PeopleCode runs once per row when the user clicks Save

C. When placed at the component record level, such PeopleCode runs once when the user clicks Save

D. When placed at the component level, such PeopleCode triggers a Save when data on the page is changed

E. When placed at the component level, such PeopleCode runs once when the user clicks Save

F. When placed at the component level, such PeopleCode runs once per row when the user clicks Save

Correct Answer: BD


Question 6:

Review the definition of the Calculate user-defined function.

Then, review the invocation of this Calculate function in a FieldChange program:

Which two corrections are required to allow these PeopleCode programs to be saved as syntactically correct programs that produce valid results? (Choose two.)

A. In the FieldChange program, move line 3 to become line 1

B. In the function definition, delete the in and out modifiers on line 1

C. Delete line 3 from the function definition. In the FieldChange program, add the following as line 5: andincr = 0;

D. Replace line 4 in the FieldChange program with the following:

Correct Answer: BD


Question 7:

Select two true statements about translate values. (Select two.)

A. You can assign translate values to any character field that is four characters long or less

B. The default label for a page field is the translate long name

C. You can inactivate any translate value by changing the value of the effective status field to “I”

D. You must maintain translate values through Application Designer

E. You must enter a translate short name

Correct Answer: AE


Question 8:

The following PeopleCode program compares two editable fields on a component.

On which event or events should the program be placed?

A. FieldEdit and RowInit

B. SaveEdit and SavePreChange

C. SaveEdit

D. FieldChange and SavePreChange

E. SaveEdit and RowInit

F. FieldEdit

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E41633_01/pt853pbh1/eng/pt/tpcd/task_PeopleCodeEvents-074aba.html


Question 9:

You are testing the Course Session Details page. You click the Lookup button for the Instructor field and select a name. When you tab off the field, a message is displayed.

What caused this issue and how do you fix it?

A. The menu definition associated with this page has the wrong search record; examine the menu definition

B. The page field definition has the wrong prompt table assigned; examine the page definition

C. The component definition associated with this page has the wrong search record; examine the component definition

D. The record field definition has the wrong prompt table assigned; examine the record definition

E. You selected an incorrect value from the prompt; select a different value

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

While in the office on his desktop computer, a user personalizes his fluid homepage by adding a tile for the My contacts component. The next day at the airport, the user attempts the access the My Contacts component using his smartphone. Unfortunately, he cannot see the My Contacts tile on his field homepage.

Why is the user unable to find the My Contacts tile on his fluid homepage when using his smartphone?

A. The user does not have the Smartphone Access check box enabled in his personalization\’s

B. The smartphone does not have a supported version of its operating system

C. The style, ps_homepage-phone, has not been applied on the Fluid tab of the Component Properties dialog box

D. The Display on Small Form Factor Homepage check box has not been selected on the Fluid tab of the Component Properties dialog box

E. The component does not contain any pages of type Small Form Factor

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

When you attempt to drag a subrecord onto a page, the page definition displays an error. What is the reason for this?

A. The Use tab on the Page Properties dialog box does not have the Page Size field set to Auto-size so that the page automatically expands to facilitate all the fields in the subrecord

B. The subrecord definition does not have the Record Type value set to SubRecord

C. The Use tab on the Record Properties dialog box for the subrecord definition does not have the Parent record field set correctly in the Record Relationship settings

D. The Page Type Field is not set to be Subpage on the Use tab of the Page Properties dialog box

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

You surround a set of page controls with a group box on a fluid page. When rendered in HTML, what tag will those page controls be within?

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

F.

Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E99483_01/pt857pbr1/eng/pt/tflu/concept_WorkingWithOtherPageControls.html


Question 13:

View the exhibits.

Based on the page layout, what changes are necessary for the page tab order?

A. Field IDs should be in the following order: 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 5, 4, 8, 9

B. Field IDs should be in the following order: 1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 6, 7, 9, 8

C. Field IDs should be in the following order: 1, 2, 3, 6, 5, 4, 7, 8, 9

D. Field IDs should be in the following order: 1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9

E. Tab order is correct, no changes are required

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Examine this PeopleCode statement:

andDate = ORDER.DATE;

Select the object-oriented equivalent.

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

E. Option E

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You are asked to create a new field definition with a field label that includes a line break for Curriculum Developer. How should you enter the label?

A. Curriculum/Developer

B. Curriculum\Developer

C. Curriculum/nDeveloper

D. Curriculum
Developer

E. Curriculum\nDeveloper

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

The VMware SD-WAN solution is comprised of Orchestrator, Gateway, and Edge. The architecture ensures separation and secure communication between the management, control, and data plane of the solution. The management plane consists of the VMware SD-WAN Orchestrator, and the control plane is comprised of the VMware SO-WAN Gateway/ Controller. Which statement correctly describes this situation?

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B. To make the entire solution to work property, TCP port 443 and HOP port 500 and UDP port 4500 are required to open in the firewall rule, if Edge is deployed behind a Firewall.

C. There is impact on data plane when the Edge loses connectivity to the management plane. The operator only loses the visibility of the Edge from Orchestrator and cannot make configuration changes on the Edge until the management plane connectivity is resumed.

D. Traffic between VMware SD-WAN Edges and from VMware SD-WAN Edges to VMware SD-WAN Gateways uses VMware SD-WAN Management Protocol (VCMP) tunneling over User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port 2427. secured with Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Employees with an Apple iOS device have been causing congestion on the company\’s internet What should an administrator configure to target these devices when creating a Business policy for this issue?

A. Action Priority

B. Action Network Service

C. Match Source

D. Match Destination

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A customer has deployed VMware SD_WAN solution An administrator asked to imported additional security for traffic going to internet without investigating in new hardware solutions.

A. Service chaining with DFW in NSX-V

B. Service chaining with Zscaler Cloud Security Service

C. Service chaining with DFW in NSX-1

D. Service chaining with AWS Cloud Security

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A service provider needs to upgrade a gateway to a new software version. Which step in needed to complete the upgrade process?

A. Re-assign the Gateway to a new gateway Pool with the appropriate software version, and then run `sudo apt-get update\’\’ from the Gateway console.

B. Create a new disk partition to save the new software image to, modify the boot order via the Gateway BIOS to boot to the new partition, and then reboot the gateway.

C. From the Orchestrator, select the check-box next to the appropriate gateway, choose `\’Assign Software image”, and then select the version for the upgrade.

D. Copy the new image to/var/lib/velocloud/software_update.tar, and then run the upgrade the script from the console.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A customer is looking to have Quality of Service (QoS), resource allocations, link/path steering, and error correction applied automatically based on applications. Which component of VMware SD-WAN helps the customer achieve this requirement?

A. Overlay Flow Control

B. High Availability Configuration

C. Business Policy Framework

D. Branch Site Topologies

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which deployment model ensures that management and control plane is cloud-delivered while data continues to flow on-premises between VMware SD-WAN nodes that remain on-premises?

A. Hosted SD-WAN Orchestrator/Controller

B. On-premises SD-WAN Orchestrator/Controller

C. Partially on-premises

D. All on-premises

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Company a has recently acquired Company B, which has two remote office. Company A is using VMware hosted Cloud Gateways, and Company B is using a VMware SD-WAN with a Hub-Spoke topology. Which VEware Cloud VPN solution an administrator configure to establish connectivity between the offices of Company A and Company B?

A. Site-to-Site VPN

B. Branch to CASH

C. Branch to Branch VPN

D. Branch to Non VMware SU-WAN Site

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which port is used for the high availability connection between the two Edges on a pair of Edge 510s?

A. Any port may be chosen.

B. GE1

C. SFP1

D. GE4

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A service provider needs to ensure that the NOC is notified proactively in the event that an Edge interface

loses connectivity to its WAN provider.

Which three methods are available for generating these alerts? (Choose three.)

A. Slack notification

B. Text/SMS

C. Push notification via the VMware SD WAN mobile app

D. SNMP Trap

E. Webhook

F. Dyinq Gasp

Correct Answer: BCF


Question 10:

A customer has a 10,000 branch site requirement arid must use a hub cluster in their design. Which Mware SO- WAN best practice should be used when designing the cluster?

A. BGP on WAN side

B. Static routing

C. MP BGP south bound

D. BGP on LAN side

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which statement is correct about VMware SD-WAN Orchestrator user roles and their associate privileges?

A. Customer Support User can view and manage then company\’s network

B. Standard Admin User can view but cannot manage their customer.

C. Superuser: User can view but cannot create additional admin.

D. Enterprise read only: User can view but not modify configurations.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A customer is using VMware vSphere in their data center. An administrator is asked to deploy SD- WAN Edges for a Proof of Concept as soon as possible. Which deployment option is the roost cost and time effective?

A. Deploy a virtual appliance on ESXi

B. Purchase bare metal Edge

C. Deploy a virtual appliance in AWS

D. Deploy a virtual appliance on KVM

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which VMware SR-WAN component runs the Deep Application Recognition Engine?

A. VMware SD WAN Orchestrator

B. VMware SD-WAN Controller

C. VMware SD-WAN Gateway

D. VMware SD-WAN Edge

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

A customer would like to use a VNF firewall on the VMware SU-WAN 600 series Edge. Where do the Edge firewall rules of the VNF apply?

A. Underlay

B. Overlay

C. WAN side

D. LAN side

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

A service provider wants to offer a common service from its data center via VMware SD-WAN Partner Gateway to many customers with overlapping IP addresses. Which configuration must be implemented?

A. Define multiple segments tor each customer

B. Enable NAT hand off under hand off static routes configuration

C. Enable tag type QinQ under hand off interface configuration

D. Configure source policy-based NAT under business- policies configuration

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Adam has installed and configured his wireless network. He has enabled numerous security features such as changing the default SSID, enabling WPA encryption, and enabling MAC filtering on his wireless router. Adam notices that when he uses his wireless connection, the speed is sometimes 16 Mbps and sometimes it is only 8 Mbps or less. Adam connects to the management utility wireless router and finds out that a machine with an unfamiliar name is connected through his wireless connection. Paul checks the router\’s logs and notices that the unfamiliar machine has the same MAC address as his laptop.

Which of the following attacks has been occurred on the wireless network of Adam?

A. NAT spoofing

B. DNS cache poisoning

C. MAC spoofing

D. ARP spoofing

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which of the following statements are true about worms? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Worms cause harm to the network by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.

B. Worms can exist inside files such as Word or Excel documents.

C. One feature of worms is keystroke logging.

D. Worms replicate themselves from one system to another without using a host file.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 3:

Which of the following statements are true about a keylogger? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. It records all keystrokes on the victim\’s computer in a predefined log file.

B. It can be remotely installed on a computer system.

C. It is a software tool used to trace all or specific activities of a user on a computer.

D. It uses hidden code to destroy or scramble data on the hard disk.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 4:

You have configured a virtualized Internet browser on your Windows XP professional computer.

Using the virtualized Internet browser, you can protect your operating system from which of the following?

A. Brute force attack

B. Mail bombing

C. Distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack

D. Malware installation from unknown Web sites

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

You see the career section of a company\’s Web site and analyze the job profile requirements. You conclude that the company wants professionals who have a sharp knowledge of Windows server 2003 and Windows active directory installation and placement. Which of the following steps are you using to perform hacking?

A. Scanning

B. Covering tracks

C. Reconnaissance

D. Gaining access

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

You want to scan your network quickly to detect live hosts by using ICMP ECHO Requests. What type of scanning will you perform to accomplish the task?

A. Idle scan

B. TCP SYN scan

C. XMAS scan

D. Ping sweep scan

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which of the following malicious software travels across computer networks without the assistance of a user?

A. Worm

B. Virus

C. Hoax

D. Trojan horses

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What is the major difference between a worm and a Trojan horse?

A. A worm spreads via e-mail, while a Trojan horse does not.

B. A worm is a form of malicious program, while a Trojan horse is a utility.

C. A worm is self replicating, while a Trojan horse is not.

D. A Trojan horse is a malicious program, while a worm is an anti-virus software.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

You have inserted a Trojan on your friend\’s computer and you want to put it in the startup so that whenever the computer reboots the Trojan will start to run on the startup. Which of the following try entries will you edit to accomplish the task?

A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Startup

B. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Auto

C. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\RunServices

D. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Start

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Jason, a Malicious Hacker, is a student of Baker university. He wants to perform remote hacking on the server of DataSoft Inc. to hone his hacking skills. The company has a Windows-based network. Jason successfully enters the target system remotely by using the advantage of vulnerability. He places a Trojan to maintain future access and then disconnects the remote session. The employees of the company complain to Mark, who works as a Professional Ethical Hacker for DataSoft Inc., that some computers are very slow. Mark diagnoses the network and finds that some irrelevant log files and signs of Trojans are present on the computers. He suspects that a malicious hacker has accessed the network. Mark takes the help from Forensic Investigators and catches Jason.

Which of the following mistakes made by Jason helped the Forensic Investigators catch him?

A. Jason did not perform a vulnerability assessment.

B. Jason did not perform OS fingerprinting.

C. Jason did not perform foot printing.

D. Jason did not perform covering tracks.

E. Jason did not perform port scanning.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Your company has been hired to provide consultancy, development, and integration services for a company named Brainbridge International. You have prepared a case study to plan the upgrade for the company. Based on the case study, which of the following steps will you suggest for configuring WebStore1?

Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.

A. Customize IIS 6.0 to display a legal warning page on the generation of the 404.2 and 404.3 errors.

B. Move the WebStore1 server to the internal network.

C. Configure IIS 6.0 on WebStore1 to scan the URL for known buffer overflow attacks.

D. Move the computer account of WebStore1 to the Remote organizational unit (OU).

Correct Answer: AC


Question 12:

Which of the following tools can be used to detect the steganography?

A. Dskprobe

B. Blindside

C. ImageHide

D. Snow

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Maria works as a professional Ethical Hacker. She is assigned a project to test the security of www.we-are-secure.com. She wants to test a DoS attack on the We-are-secure server. She finds that the firewall of the server is blocking the ICMP

messages, but it is not checking the UDP

packets. Therefore, she sends a large amount of UDP echo request traffic to the IP broadcast addresses. These UDP requests have a spoofed source address of the We-are-secure server.

Which of the following DoS attacks is Maria using to accomplish her task?

A. Ping flood attack

B. Fraggle DoS attack

C. Teardrop attack

D. Smurf DoS attack

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which of the following is designed to protect the Internet resolvers (clients) from forged DNS data created by DNS cache poisoning?

A. Stub resolver

B. BINDER

C. Split-horizon DNS

D. Domain Name System Extension (DNSSEC)

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which of the following tools can be used for stress testing of a Web server? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. Internet bots

B. Scripts

C. Anti-virus software

D. Spyware

Correct Answer: AB


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DRAG DROP

Match each tool or technique to its corresponding Project Risk Management process. Click on the tool or technique on the left and drag it to the appropriate gray box in the middle.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Match the role with its corresponding job description.

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Question 3:

DRAG DROP

A project manager is reviewing the different tools and techniques used to perform a quantitative risk analysis. Match the tool and techniques with the appropriate result.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 4:

DRAG DROP

Match the process with its corresponding process group.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://projectmanagementacademy.net/articles/five-traditional-process-groups/


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DRAG DROP

Match the method for categorizing stakeholders with its corresponding description.

Select and Place:

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Question 6:

DRAG DROP

Match the process with its corresponding Process Group.

Select and Place:

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Question 7:

DRAG DROP

Match each tool or technique with its corresponding Project Cost Management process.

Select and Place:

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DRAG DROP

Match the inputs to the corresponding Project Procurement Management Process.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.projectengineer.net/project-procurement-management-according-to-the-pmbok/


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DRAG DROP

Match the tool or technique with its corresponding Project Integration Management process.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.projectengineer.net/project-integration-management-according-to-the-pmbok/


Question 10:

DRAG DROP

Match each tool or technique with an appropriate example of that tool or technique.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 11:

DRAG DROP

Match the tool or technique with the corresponding Project Integration Management process.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.projectengineer.net/project-schedule-management-according-to-the-pmbok/


Question 12:

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A. Strategic plan

B. Project charter

C. Project management plan

D. Service level agreement

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.

B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases.

C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.

D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

A. Document analysis

B. Observations

C. Product analysis

D. Expert judgment

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

A. Independent estimates

B. Market research

C. Analytical techniques

D. Bidder conferences

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer is deploying Guest Self-Registration with Sponsor Approval but does not like the format of the sponsor email. Where can you change the sponsor email?

A. in the Receipt Page – Actions

B. in the Sponsor Confirmation section

C. in me Configuration – Receipts – Email Receipts

D. in the Configuration – Receipts – Templates

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

While configuring a guest solution, the customer is requesting that guest user receive access for four hours from their first login. Which Guest Account Expiration would you select?

A. expire_after

B. do_expire

C. expire_time

D. expire_ postlogin

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit: A customer has configured the Aruba Controller for administrative authentication using ClearPass as a TACACS server. During testing, the read-only user is getting the root access role. What could be a possible reason for this behavior? (Select two.)

A. The Controllers Admin Authentication Options Default role is mapped to toot.

B. The ClearPass user role associated to the read-only user is wrong

C. The Controller Server Group Match Rules are changing the user role

D. The read-only enforcement profile is mapped to the root role

E. On the Controller, the TACAC$ authentication server Is not configured for Session authorization

Correct Answer: CE


Question 4:

You have recently implemented a serf-registration portal in ClearPass Guest to be used on a Guest SSID broadcast from an Aruba controller. Your customer has started complaining that the users are not able to reliably access the internet

after clicking the login button on the receipt page. They tell you that the users will click the login button multiple times and alter about a minute they gain access.

What could be causing this issue?

A. The self-registration page is configured with a 1 minute login delay.

B. The guest client is delayed getting an IP address from the DHCP server.

C. The guest users are assigned a firewall user role that has a rate limit.

D. The enforcement profile on ClearPass is set up with an lETF:session delay.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit:

A year ago, your customer deployed an Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager Server for a Guest SSIC hosted in an IAP Cluster. The customer just created a new Web Login Page for the Guest SSID. Even though the previous Web Login page

worked test with the new Web Login Page are falling and the customer has forwarded you the above screenshots.

What recommendation would you give the customer to tix the issue?

A. The service type configured is not correct. The Guest authentication should De an Application authentication type of service.

B. The customer should reset the password tor the username [email protected] com using Guest Manage Accounts

C. The Address filed under the WebLogin Vendor settings is not configured correctly, it should be set to instant arubanetworks.com

D. The WebLogin Pre-Auth Check is set to Aruba Application Authentication which requires a separate application service on the policy manager

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit: A customer has configured Onboard and Windows devices work as expected but cannot get the Apple iOS devices to Onboard successfully. Where would you look to troubleshoot the Issued (Select two)

A. Check if the ClearPass HTTPS server certificate installed in the server is issued by a trusted commercial certificate authority.

B. Check if the customer installed the internal PKl Root certificate presented by the ClearPass during the provisioning process.

C. Check if a DNS entry is available for the ClearPass hostname in the certificate, resolvable from the DNS server assigned to the client.

D. Check if the customer has Instated a custom HTTPS certificate for IDS and another internal PKl HTTPS certificate for other devices.

E. Check if the customer has installed the same internal PKl signed RADIUS server certificate as the HTTPS server certificate.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer has configured onboard in a cluster with two nodes All devices were onboarded in the network through node1 but those clients tail to authenticate through node2 with the error shown. What steps would you suggest to make provisioning and authentication work across the entire cluster? (Select three.)

A. Have all of the BYOD clients re-run the Onboard process

B. Configure the Onboard Root CA to trust the Policy Manager EAP certificate root.

C. Have all of the BYOD clients disconnect and reconnect to me network

D. Make sure that the EAP certificates on both nodes are issued by one common root Certificate Authority (CA).

E. Make sure that the HTTPS certificate on both nodes is issued as a Code Signing certificate

F. Configure the Network Settings in Onboard to trust the Policy Manager EAP certificate

Correct Answer: BDF


Question 8:

A customer has completed all the required configurations in the Windows server in order for Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) to sign Onboard device TLS certificates. The Onboard portal and the Onboard services are also

configured. Testing shows that the Client certificates ate still signed by the Onboard Certificate Authority and not ADCS.

How can you help the customer with the situation?

A. Educate the customer that, when integrating with Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) the Onboard CA will the same authority used for signing me final TLS certificate of the device.

B. Configure the identity certificate signer as Active Directory Certificate Services and enter the ADCS URL http://ADCSVVeoEnrollmentServemostname/certsrv in the OnBoard Provisioning settings.

C. Enable access to EST servers from the Certificate Authority to make ClearPass Onboard to use of the Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) web enrollment to sign the device TLS certificates.

D. Enable access to SCEP servers from the Certificate Authority to make ClearPass Onboard to use of the Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) web enrollment to sign the device TLS certificates.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit: A customer has just configured a Posture Policy and the T2-Healthcheck Service. Next they installed the OnGuard Agent on Secure_Employee SSID. When they check Access Tracker they see many WEBAUTH requests are being triggered. What could be the reason?

A. OnGuard Web-Based Health Check interval has been wrongly configured to three minutes.

B. The OnGuard Agent trigger the events based on changing the Health Status

C. TCP port 6658 is not allowed between the client and the ClearPass server

D. The OnGuard Agent is connecting to the Data Port interface on ClearPass

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit:

You have configured Onboard but me customer could not onboard one of his devices and has sent you the above screenshots. How could you resolve the issue?

A. Instruct the user to delete the profile on one of their other BYOD devices.

B. Instruct the user to run the Quick connect application in Sponsor Mode.

C. Increase the maximum number of devices allowed by the individual user account.

D. Increase the maximum number of devices that all users can provision to 3.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Refer to the Exhibit:

A customer wants to integrate posture validation into an Aruba Wireless 802.1X authentication service During testing, the client connects to the Aruba Employee Secure SSID and is redirected to the Captive Portal page where the user can

download the OnGuard Agent After the Agent is installed, the client receives the Healthy token the client remains connected to the Captive Portal page ClearPass is assigning the endpoint the following roles: T2-Staff-User. (Machine

Authenticated! and T2-SOL-Device.

What could cause this behavior?

A. The Enforcement Policy conditions for rule 1 are not configured correctly.

B. Used Cached Results: has not been enabled In the Aruba 802.1X Wireless Service

C. RFC-3576 Is not configured correctly on the Aruba Controller and does not update the role.

D. The Enforcement Profile should bounce the connection instead of a Terminate session

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

When is it recommended to use a certificate with multiple entries on the Subject Alternative Name?

A. The ClearPass servers are placed in different OnGuard zones to allow the client agent to send SHV updates.

B. Using the same certificate to Onboard clients and the Guest Captive Portal on a single ClearPass server.

C. The primary authentication server Is not available to authenticate the users.

D. The ClearPass server will be hosting captive portal pages for multiple FQDN entries

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

A customer has created a Guest Sett-Registration page that they would like to use it as `template\’ for all the new pages that are going to be created from now on. Their goal is to ensure that the header and footer on every page are the same,

and any edits made to them are automatically reflected on every Self-Registration Page.

What should be configured in order to accomplish this request?

A. Save the “template” page as Master Self-Registration page

B. Create child pages when creating new Self-Registration pages and select the “template” as Parent

C. Save this “template” page as a new Skin to be used on other Self-Registration pages

D. Copy the “template” page and edit it each time a new Self-Registration Page is needed

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which statements are true about Aruba downloadable user roles? (Select three.)

A. Can be applied only on ports or WLAN users authenticated by ClearPass.

B. Aruba downloadable user role are universally available across the environment

C. Aruba downloadable user role is a built in enforcement template in ClearPass

D. Downloadable role names must be defined in Aruba switch or controller

E. Can use these roles for other authentication methods not involving ClearPass

F. Administering downloadable user roles can be difficult for a large enterprise

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit: The customer complains that the user shown cannot log into the ClearPass Server as an administrator using the [Policy Manager Admin Network Login Service]. What could be the reason for this?

A. The user might be used for a TACACS authentication

B. The account created does not fit this purpose.

C. The mapping on the role should be changed to [RADIUS Super Admin]

D. The local user authentication might be disabled

Correct Answer: B