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Question 1:

A customer is a cloud provider who needs a new storage array. They want a solution that has built-in multi-tenancy features. Why should you propose HPE 3PAR StoreServ to the customer?

A. It divides controller nodes into groups for multiple tenants.

B. It includes the virtual domains feature as part of all-inclusive licensing.

C. It divides drives into separate pools for multiple tenants.

D. It includes the NPARs feature for physical separation of the array into tenant areas.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/4aa3-3516enw.pdf


Question 2:

A customer is looking for a new platform to support their AI research projects. Which technology should you recommend?

A. Peer Persistence

B. Multi-core GPUs

C. Availability clustering

D. Persistent memory

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/solutions/infosight.html


Question 3:

A customer is looking to virtualize desktops and application access to provide better business continuance and disaster recovery. They also need simplified deployment and the ability to scale out in the feature. Which HPE platform should you recommend?

A. Edgeline

B. ProLiant DL

C. Superdome Flex

D. SimpliVity

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/a00019351enw.pdf


Question 4:

What must be taken into account when using the HPE FlexFabric 5945 4-slot Switch as a ToR switch in a solution?

A. adding in a Network Analytics Engine license

B. specifying a fan tray with the appropriate direction of airflow

C. adding in an Intelligent Resilient Framework license

D. selecting power supplies with adequate reserve PoE capacity

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/uk/en/product-catalog/networking/networking-switches/pip.hpe-flexfabric-5945-switch-series.1010931108.html


Question 5:

A customer wants to implement a container platform across their enterprise data center. They need to automate hardware and software configurations to quickly provision and deploy at scale. Which authentication solution should you recommend?

A. Red Hat Ansible Tower

B. OpenStack on OpenStack

C. Chef

D. DevStack

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A customer is purchasing a full rack of DL380 Gen10 servers. They are under a severe time constraint and would like the servers to be ready to receive applications upon power up. What should be recommended to satisfy this requirement?

A. Use HPE Proactive Care services.

B. Use HP Pointnext service patching and OS installation services.

C. Include a Customer Intent Document with the order, requesting OS installation services.

D. Nothing additional: all servers arrive from the factory ready for application deployment.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A customer contacts you for assistance with an expansion of their current HPE Synergy environment. The existing environment contains:

1.

one Synergy 12000 frame

2.

two Composers

3.

eight SY480 Compute Modules – 1 CPU – 384GB RAM – 3820C 10/20GbE CNA

4.

one D3940 Storage Module

The new requirement is 16Gb FC connectivity to a newly-deployed 3PAR storage array.

Which components should you include? (Choose two.)

A. Synergy 3830C Host Bus Adapter

B. two QSFP AOC/DAC cables for ICM clustering

C. a second CPU per Compute Module

D. HPE Synergy FC License Upgrade per Composer pair

E. an additional Virtual Connect SE 40Gb F8

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=c05061206


Question 8:

A customer running multiple HPE Synergy frames wants to change a parameter in the BIOS of all their VMware servers, based on the recommendations of their VMware team. Where is the most efficient location to make this change?

A. iLO Federation

B. Server Profile Template

C. Logical Enclosure

D. ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU)

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

A customer asks you about the features of the HPE SimpliVity, such as performance, availability, efficiency, and protection. Which statement is correct about an HPE SimpliVity solution that enables these features?

A. The OmniStack Accelerator Card (OAC) contains a FPGA programmed with HPE SimpliVity deduplication, compression, and optimization algorithms.

B. The OmniStack Accelerator Card (OAC) connects directly to the iSCSI VIP address enabled by the OVC.

C. The OmniStack Accelerator Card (OAC) has direct hardware access to the two PCIe cards through VM direct path IO.

D. The OmniStack Virtual Controller(OVC) creates an iSCSI datastore where the hypervisor stores the workload VMs.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/a00009003enw.pdf (6)


Question 10:

In preparation for a customer presentation, you need to provide meaningful estimates of cooling requirements for HPE ProLiant, HPE Apollo, and HPE Synergy servers. What should you use?

A. HPE Synergy Planning Tool

B. HPE Proposal Web

C. HPE Server Memory Configurator

D. HPE Power Advisor

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA6-2925ENW.pdf


Question 11:

A customer requires front panel access for their Gen10 servers. What is required to meet this need?

A. a USB 2.0 Ethernet adapter

B. an installed iLo Advance license

C. Secure Boot enabled

D. Two-factor authentication enabled

Correct Answer: A

HPE iLO Service port – How to use it?


Question 12:

A customer is looking for a switch virtualization feature that can help them simplify the management of their HPE FlexFabric switches. Which technology should you recommend?

A. VSF

B. MSTP

C. VXLAN

D. IRF

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=emr_na-c04214037anddocLocale=en_US (6)


Question 13:

A customer is asking for the latest version of the HPE Nimble Storage Integration Guide. Where can the customer download the guide?

A. HPE SPOCK

B. HPE Product Bulletin

C. HPE InfoSight

D. HPE Information Library

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/Application-Integration/Announcing-the-release-of-HPE-Nimble-Storage-PowerShell-Toolkit/td-p/7017899#.XgCDWmbVLiw


Question 14:

A customer is interested in a Synergy solution. They need 100 compute modules and expect the workload to double in two years. They ask for the minimum number of management ports they will need to connect Synergy frames into their management network. How should you reply?

A. FLMs from all frames connect into a management ring, and the management ring connects into their management network with two uplinks.

B. FLMs from all frames connect to two external switches, and these two switches connect into their management network.

C. Synergy solution only allows 15 frames to be interconnected, so growth in customer\’s workload is not supported.

D. The RJ-45 ports on the front of each frame are connected to an external switch, which is connected into their management network.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You are designing a network topology for a customer. The customer is looking for a large-scale Layer 2 fabric, with redundant links and load balancing, while avoiding traditional STP, RSTP, and MSTP protocols. Which switch will support these features with industry standard technology?

A. HPE FlexFabric 5980

B. HPE FlexFabric 12902E

C. Aruba 8325

D. HPE FlexFabric 5710

Correct Answer: B

https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/c04111378.pdf


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Question 1:

Which step can be taken to ensure that only FortiAP devices receive IP addresses from a DHCP server on FortiGate?

A. Change the interface addressing mode to FortiAP devices.

B. Create a reservation list in the DHCP server settings.

C. Configure a VCI string value of FortiAP in the DHCP server settings.

D. Use DHCP option 138 to assign IPs to FortiAP devices.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

In the WTP profile configuration shown in the exhibit, the AP profile is assigned to two FAP-320 APs that are installed in an open plan office.

1.

The first AP has 32 clients associated to the 5GHz radios and 22 clients associated to the 2.4GHz

radio.

2.

The second AP has 12 clients associated to the 5GHz radios and 20 clients associated to the 2.4GHz radio.

A dual band-capable client enters the office near the first AP and the first AP measures the new client at −33 dBm signal strength. The second AP measures the new client at −43 dBm signal strength.

In the new client attempts to connect to the corporate wireless network, to which AP radio will the client be associated?

A. The second AP 5GHz interface.

B. The first AP 2.4GHz interface.

C. The first AP 5GHz interface.

D. The second AP 2.4GHz interface.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which two EAP methods can use MSCHAPV2 for client authentication? (Choose two.)

A. PEAP

B. EAP-TTLS

C. EAP-TLS

D. EAP-GTC

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://help.fortinet.com/fauth/3-3/Content/FortiAuthenticator 3_3 Admin% 20Guide/500/501_EAP.htm


Question 4:

Which two statements about the use of digital certificates are true? (Choose two.)

A. An intermediate CA can sign server certificates.

B. An intermediate CA can sign another intermediate CA certificate.

C. The end entity\’s certificate can only be created by an intermediate CA.

D. An intermediate CA can validate the end entity certificate signed by another intermediate CA.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 5:

A wireless network in a school provides guest access using a captive portal to allow unregistered users to self-register and access the network. The administrator is requested to update the existing configuration to provide captive portal authentication through a secure connection (HTTPS) to protect and encrypt guest user credentials after they receive the login information when registered for the first time.

Which two changes must the administrator make to enforce HTTPS authentication? (Choose two.)

A. Provide instructions to users to use HTTPS to access the network.

B. Create a new SSID with the HTTPS captive portal URL.

C. Enable Redirect HTTP Challenge to a Secure Channel (HTTPS) in the user authentication settings

D. Update the captive portal URL to use HTTPS on FortiGate and FortiAuthenticator

Correct Answer: BD


Question 6:

An administrator is deploying APs that are connecting over an IPsec network. All APs have been configured to connect to FortiGate manually. FortiGate can discover the APs and authorize them. However, FortiGate is unable to establish CAPWAP tunnels to manage the APs.

Which configuration setting can the administrator perform to resolve the problem?

A. Decrease the CAPWAP tunnel MTU size for APs to prevent fragmentation.

B. Enable CAPWAP administrative access on the IPsec interface.

C. Upgrade the FortiAP firmware image to ensure compatibility with the FortiOS version.

D. Assign a custom AP profile for the remote APs with the set mpls-connectionoption enabled.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

A host machine connected to port2 on FortiSwitch cannot connect to the network. All ports on FortiSwitch are assigned a security policy to enforce 802.1X port authentication. While troubleshooting the issue, the administrator runs the debug command and obtains the output shown in the exhibit.

Which two scenarios are the likely cause of this issue? (Choose two.)

A. The host machine is not configured for 802.1X port authentication.

B. The host machine does not support 802. 1X authentication.

C. The host machine is quarantined due to a security incident.

D. The host machine is configured with wrong VLAN ID.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD46428


Question 8:

What action does FortiSwitch take when it receives a loop guard data packet (LGDP) that was sent by itself?

A. The receiving port is shut down.

B. The sending port is shut down

C. The receiving port is moved to the STP blocking state.

D. The sending port is moved to the STP blocking state

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.scribd.com/document/468940309/Secure-Access-6-0-Study-Guide-Online-pdf


Question 9:

Default VLANs are created on FortiGate when the FortiLink interface is created. By default, which VLAN is set as Allowed VLANs on all FortiSwitch ports?

A. Sniffer VLAN

B. Camera VLAN

C. Quarantine VLAN

D. Voice VLAN

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

What does DHCP snooping MAC verification do?

A. Drops DHCP release packets on untrusted ports

B. Drops DHCP packets with no relay agent information (option 82) on untrusted ports

C. Drops DHCP offer packets on untrusted ports

D. Drops DHCP packets on untrusted ports when the client hardware address does not match the source MAC address

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiswitch/6.4.2/administration-guide/335964/dhcpsnooping (note)


Question 11:

Which statement correctly describes the quest portal behavior on FortiAuthenticator?

A. Sponsored accounts cannot authenticate using guest portals.

B. FortiAuthenticator uses POST parameters and a RADIUS client configuration to map the request to a guest portal for authentication.

C. All guest accounts must be activated using SMS or email activation codes.

D. All self-registered and sponsored accounts are listed on the local Users GUI page on FortiAuthenticator.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Examine the sections of the configuration shown in the following output:

What action will the FortiGate take when using OCSP certificate validation?

A. FortiGate will reject the certificate if the OCSP server replies that the certificate is unknown.

B. FortiGate will use the OCSP server 10.0.1.150 even when the OCSP URL field in the user certificate

contains a different OCSP server IP address.

C. FortiGate will use the OCSP server 10.0.1.150 even when there is a different OCSP IP address in the ocsp-override-serveroption under config user peer.

D. FortiGate will invalidate the certificate if the OSCP server is unavailable.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

Examine the configuration of the FortiSwitch security policy profile.

If the security profile shown in the exhibit is assigned on the FortiSwitch port for 802.1X.port authentication, which statement is correct?

A. Host machines that do support 802.1X authentication, but have failed authentication, will be assigned the guest VLAN.

B. All unauthenticated users will be assigned the auth-fail VLAN.

C. Authenticated users that are part of the wired-users group will be assigned the guest VLAN.

D. Host machines that do not support 802.1X authentication will be assigned the guest VLAN.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Examine the following RADIUS configuration:

An administrator has configured a RADIUS server on FortiGate that points to FortiAuthenticator. FortiAuthenticator is acting as an authentication proxy and is configured to relay all authentication requests to a remote Windows AD server using LDAP.

While testing the configuration, the administrator notices that the diagnose test authservercommand works with PAP, however, authentication requests fail when using MSCHAPv2.

Which two changes should the administrator make to get MSCHAPv2 to work? (Choose two.)

A. Force FortiGate to use the PAP authentication method in the RADIUS server configuration.

B. Change the remote authentication server from LDAP to RADIUS on FortiAuthenticator.

C. Use MSCHAP instead of using MSCHAPv2

D. Enable Windows Active Directory Domain Authentication on FortiAuthenticator to add FortiAuthenticator to the Windows domain.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiauthenticator/6.0.0/administration-guide/641286/ remote-authentication-servers


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibits.

Examine the VAP configuration and the WiFi zones table shown in the exhibits.

Which two statements describe FortiGate behavior regarding assignment of VLANs to wireless clients? (Choose two.)

A. FortiGate will load balance clients using VLAN 101 and VLAN 102 and assign them an IP address from the 10.0.3.0/24 subnet.

B. Clients connecting to APs in the Floor 1 group will not be able to receive an IP address.

C. All clients connecting to the Corp SSID will receive an IP address from the 10.0.3.1/24 subnet.

D. Clients connecting to APs in the Office group will be assigned an IP address from the 10.0.20.1/24 subnet.

Correct Answer: BD


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Question 1:

An internal host initiates a session to the Google.com website and is set for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway. The initiating traffic is an example of __________.

A. client side NAT

B. source NAT

C. destination NAT

D. None of these

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

A host on the Internet initiates traffic to the Static NAT IP of your Web server behind the Security Gateway. With the default settings in place for NAT, the initiating packet will translate the _________.

A. destination on server side

B. source on server side

C. source on client side

D. destination on client side

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Looking at the SYN packets in the Wireshark output, select the statement that is true about NAT.

A. This is an example of Hide NAT.

B. There is not enough information provided in the Wireshark capture to determine the NAT settings.

C. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side unchecked in Global Properties.

D. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side checked in Global Properties.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When Network Address Translation is used:

A. It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway\’s routing table.

B. It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway\’s routing table.

C. The Security Gateway\’s ARP file must be modified.

D. VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Your internal network is configured to be 10.1.1.0/24. This network is behind your perimeter R80 Gateway, which connects to your ISP provider. How do you configure the Gateway to allow this network to go out to the Internet?

A. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the external IP address of your perimeter Gateway.

B. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the internal interface of your perimeter Gateway.

C. Use automatic Static NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24.

D. Do nothing, as long as 10.1.1.0 network has the correct default Gateway.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

You are a Security Administrator who has installed Security Gateway R80 on your network. You need to allow a specific IP address range for a partner site to access your intranet Web server. To limit the partner\’s access for HTTP and FTP

only, you did the following:

1) Created manual Static NAT rules for the Web server.

2) Cleared the following settings in the Global Properties > Network Address Translation screen:

-Allow bi-directional NAT

Translate destination on client side Do the above settings limit the partner\’s access?

A.

Yes. This will ensure that traffic only matches the specific rule configured for this traffic, and that the Gateway translates the traffic after accepting the packet.

B.

No. The first setting is not applicable. The second setting will reduce performance.

C.

Yes. Both of these settings are only applicable to automatic NAT rules.

D.

No. The first setting is only applicable to automatic NAT rules. The second setting will force translation by the kernel on the interface nearest to the client.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

You enable Automatic Static NAT on an internal host node object with a private IP address of 10.10.10.5, which is NATed into 216.216.216.5. (You use the default settings in Global Properties / NAT.) When you run fw monitor on the R80 Security Gateway and then start a new HTTP connection from host 10.10.10.5 to browse the Internet, at what point in the monitor output will you observe the HTTP SYN-ACK packet translated from 216.216.216.5 back into 10.10.10.5?

A. o=outbound kernel, before the virtual machine

B. I=inbound kernel, after the virtual machine

C. O=outbound kernel, after the virtual machine

D. i=inbound kernel, before the virtual machine

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

You just installed a new Web server in the DMZ that must be reachable from the Internet. You create a manual Static NAT rule as follows:

Source: Any || Destination: web_public_IP || Service: Any || Translated Source: original || Translated Destination: web_private_IP || Service: Original “web_public_IP” is the node object that represents the new Web server\’s public IP address.

“web_private_IP” is the node object that represents the new Web site\’s private IP address. You enable all settings from Global Properties > NAT. When you try to browse the Web server from the Internet you see the error “page cannot be

displayed”. Which of the following is NOT a possible reason?

A. There is no Security Policy defined that allows HTTP traffic to the protected Web server.

B. There is no ARP table entry for the protected Web server\’s public IP address.

C. There is no route defined on the Security Gateway for the public IP address to the Web server\’s private IP address.

D. There is no NAT rule translating the source IP address of packets coming from the protected Web server.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

You have created a Rule Base for firewall, websydney. Now you are going to create a new policy package with security and address translation rules for a second Gateway.

What is TRUE about the new package\’s NAT rules?

A. Rules 1, 2, 3 will appear in the new package.

B. Only rule 1 will appear in the new package.

C. NAT rules will be empty in the new package.

D. Rules 4 and 5 will appear in the new package.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Your customer, Mr. Smith needs access to other networks and should be able to use all services. Session authentication is not suitable. You select Client Authentication with HTTP. The standard authentication port for client HTTP authentication (Port 900) is already in use. You want to use Port 9001 but are having connectivity problems. Why are you having problems?

A. The configuration file $FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf is incorrect.

B. The Security Policy is not correct.

C. You can\’t use any port other than the standard port 900 for Client Authentication via HTTP.

D. The service FW_clntauth_http configuration is incorrect.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

In the Rule Base displayed, user authentication in Rule 4 is configured as fully automatic. Eric is a member of the LDAP group, MSD_Group.

What happens when Eric tries to connect to a server on the Internet?

A. None of these things will happen.

B. Eric will be authenticated and get access to the requested server.

C. Eric will be blocked because LDAP is not allowed in the Rule Base.

D. Eric will be dropped by the Stealth Rule.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

As a Security Administrator, you must refresh the Client Authentication authorization time-out every time a new user connection is authorized. How do you do this? Enable the Refreshable Timeout setting:

A. in the user object\’s Authentication screen.

B. in the Gateway object\’s Authentication screen.

C. in the Limit tab of the Client Authentication Action Properties screen.

D. in the Global Properties Authentication screen.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

The technical-support department has a requirement to access an intranet server. When configuring a User Authentication rule to achieve this, which of the following should you remember?

A. You can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, SMTP, and rlogin services.

B. The Security Gateway first checks if there is any rule that does not require authentication for this type of connection before invoking the Authentication Security Server.

C. Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until logging out.

D. You can limit the authentication attempts in the User Properties\’ Authentication tab.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

You cannot use SmartDashboard\’s User Directory features to connect to the LDAP server. What should you investigate?

1) Verify you have read-only permissions as administrator for the operating system.

2) Verify there are no restrictions blocking SmartDashboard\’s User Manager from connecting to the LDAP server.

3) Check that the login Distinguished Name configured has root permission (or at least write permission Administrative access) in the LDAP Server\’s access control configuration.

A. 1, 2, and 3

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 2

D. 1 and 3

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which Security Gateway R80 configuration setting forces the Client Authentication authorization time-out to refresh, each time a new user is authenticated? The:

A. Time properties, adjusted on the user objects for each user, in the Client Authentication rule Source.

B. IPS > Application Intelligence > Client Authentication > Refresh User Timeout option enabled.

C. Refreshable Timeout setting, in Client Authentication Action Properties > Limits.

D. Global Properties > Authentication parameters, adjusted to allow for Regular Client Refreshment.

Correct Answer: C


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A. True

B. False

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Question 2:

Which funtion can be used to insert an empty entry? Choose the correct answer.

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C. RemoveContexts()

D. SplitByValueQ

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which runtime constant is associated with the sender interface name? Choose the correct answer.

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B. $Interface

C. SInterface Namespace

D. $Receiver Name

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An inbound service interface corresponds to a client or consumer proxy. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

A. True

B. False

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What do business rules define? Choose the correct answer.

A. A set application tasks and sequencing.

B. A set of restrictions placed on te process model.

C. A set of conditions with associated actions.

D. A set of standard practices and policies.

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The RFC adapter is located on the Java Enterprise Edition (JEE) Engine Determine whether this statement is true or false.

A. True

B. False

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Question 7:

The Java component SLD data supplier is deployed and started for the SAP NetWeaver AS Java server. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

If you modify a mapping template after it has been references in a message mapping, the change is automatically transferred to the message mapping. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which of the following logs contains information about BPM processes and tasks? Choose the correct answer.

A. Business log

B. Connection log

C. J2EE Engine log

D. Process log

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Messages created in the message split contain the original message attachments. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

The … acts as a central point of information for all interfaces. Choose the correct answer.

A. Software component

B. Enterprise Services Repository (ESR)

C. Imported object

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What do Business Rules represent?

Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. They represent application business rules of an organization.

B. They represent the constraints on behavior of the business.

C. They represent a set of standard business practices.

D. They represent a static component of any business.

E. They represent the guidelines and core business logic.

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 13:

Which of the following XSLT tags allow you to import additional XSLT files? Choose the correct answers.

A.

B.

C.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

What is a referenced subprocess used for? Choose the correct answer.

A. To reference another dependent process by the parent process

B. To reference another independent process by the parent process

C. To reference another dependent process by the child process

D. To reference another independent process by the child process

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What is data mapping used for? Choose the correct answer.

A. Transforming process context to a source context

B. Transforming target context to a source context

C. Transforming business context to a target context

D. Transforming source context to a target context

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Which setup profile option allows you to send a report directly to a browser window?

A. Viewer: Text

B. Concurrent: Report Copies

C. Flexfields: Open Key Window

D. Concurrent Report: Access Level

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

There are several types of RFQ, Including Catalog RFQ, Standard RFQ, and Bid RFQ.

There are only two classes of RFQ. Identify the two valid classes and their appropriate purposes. (Choose two.)

A. Bid Class, which supports Shipments

B. Standard Class, which supports Items

C. Planned Class, which supports Catalogs

D. Catalog Class, which supports Price Breaks

E. Cost Class, which supports Bid Price Breaks

F. Category Class, which supports Supplier Catalogs

G. Contract Class, which supports Total Dollars Agreed to

Correct Answer: AD


Question 3:

Company X is identifying the major aspects of its inventory organization structure and definitions. Which two actions or statements would be correct? (Choose two.)

A. An Inventory location can be an Office Site only If it Is also a registered office.

B. It can consider manufacturing facilities, warehouses, distribution centers, and branch offices, as well as other entities.

C. It does not need a minimum of two inventory organizations in a master/child relationship, but it is a best practice to do so.

D. The financial impact of inventory parameters is limited to Purchase Price Variance and Intransit Account for Interorganization shipments and Transfer Credits for the sending organization.

E. You can control inventory organizations across different operating units from one responsibility but you cannot have ft default to one operating unit. The last used operating unit used before you tog off would default when you log in the next time.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

Select the best business practice for a supplier that is being newly added to the Approved Supplier List.

A. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing, Schedule Confirmation and Manufacturer Link

B. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing and Schedule Confirmation but not Manufacturer Link

C. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing and Manufacturer Link but not Schedule Confirmation

D. Allow PO Approval, Schedule Confirmation and Manufacturer Link but not Sourcing

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Identify the correct sequence of steps in the Procure to Pay period dose process.

A. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period.

B. Prepare for period close. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period. > Post journal entries in GL

C. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in PO. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile PO activity for the period. > Close the AP period.

D. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Post journal entries in GL > Close the PO period.

E. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Create accounting. > Post journal entries in GL. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A multinational company is setting up the sourcing rules and approved supplier list (ASL) to source inventory items across different organizations. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. You do not need to create a local ASL if you create a Global ASL

B. Inventory organizations used in the sourcing rules must be set up in the Shipping Networks.

C. You need to match the supplier between a sourcing rule and an ASL, but not the supplier site.

D. The country of origin must be entered in the ASL, or it would not be available on the purchasing document.

E. A commodity can be assigned to a supplier at both the global level and at the local level, and the local level assignment takes precedence.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 7:

Which control option prevents changes or additions to the purchase order or release, but maintains the ability to receive and match invoices?

A. Hold

B. Firm

C. Close

D. Freeze

E. Finally Close

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

The buyer decides to automatically update and create sourcing rules, as part of the blanket purchase agreement approval process. However, on clicking the Approve button, the buyer does not see any option to update and create blanket

purchase sourcing rules.

Which profile option has the buyer failed to set up?

A. PO: Automatic Document Sourcing

B. MRP: Default Sourcing Assignment Set

C. PO: Allow Auto-generate Sourcing Rules

D. PO: Allow Autocreation of Oracle Sourcing Documents

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Your company often orders Items that are sourced from multiple suppliers. At any given time, the supplier varies depending on the supplier\’s current production capability and price offering. The price varies throughout the year. For a particular

item, there is no single supplier that receives the majority of the orders.

What is the best way to set up this item?

A. Create blanket purchase agreements, a sourcing rule identifying all the possible suppliers, and approved supplier list entries.

B. Create contract purchase agreements, a sourcing rule identifying all the possible suppliers, and approved supplier list entries.

C. Do not create blanket or contract purchase agreements or sourcing rules. Manually AutoCreate requisitions onto standard purchase orders.

D. Create a blanket purchase agreement for only one supplier, a sourcing rule for just that supplier, and an approved supplier list entry for that supplier.

E. Create a contract purchase agreement for only one supplier, a sourcing rule for just that supplier, and an approved supplier list entry for that supplier.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which four are supported by the Receiving Open Interface (ROI)? (Choose four.)

A. Unordered receipt

B. Dynamic locators

C. Deliver transactions

D. Movement statistics

E. Correct transactions

F. Receive transactions

G. Transfer transactions

Correct Answer: CEFG


Question 11:

Select three true statements regarding the Workflow Document Creation prerequisite (PO Create Documents workflow). (Choose three.)

A. Catalog quote must not be expired, but may be inactive.

B. Supplier and supplier site are required on the requisition related to a contract purchase order.

C. If a system Item is not associated with the requisition line, a supplier item number is required.

D. Sourcing rules are required If the requisition originates in Oracle Purchasing or {Procurement.

E. No source document is required for the PO Create Documents workflow to create a release or purchase order.

F. The only time an approved supplier list is required is if your source document is a blanket purchase agreement and you are using a system item.

Correct Answer: BCF


Question 12:

Requisition Import groups all requisitions with the same group code under the same requisition header. If no group code is specified, requisition Import groups requisitions according to five types of groups that can be optionally passed to the Requisition Import process.

Identify them. (Choose five.)

A. Group by Item.

B. Group by price.

C. Group by buyer.

D. Group by UOM.

E. Group by location.

F. Group by supplier.

G. Group by description.

H. Group all requisition lines under one requisition header

Correct Answer: ACEFH


Question 13:

Which two statements are true regarding approval workflows In Purchasing? (Choose two.)

A. You can limit approval levels in an Approval Group by Item Category.

B. Approval routing can cut across legal entities within a business group.

C. A Purchase Requisition and a Standard Purchase Order cannot have different approval levels.

D. The Hierarchy Forward Method routes the document to the first approver in the hierarchy who has the required approval limits for that document.

E. During Position Hierarchy setup, a constraint that must be considered is that the Subordinate must not be the manager of the Position Holder in their regular job roles.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 14:

There are four tabbed regions in the Supplier Item Catalog window (Negotiated Sources, Prior Purchases, Sourcing Rules, and Requisition Templates), but function security can be used to determine whether a user will be able to see all of

them.

In release R12, where is the requisition setup option that determines which of the tabbed regions is the default?

A. in the Profile Options setup

B. in the Lookup Codes setup

C. in the Document Types setup

D. in the Purchasing Options setup

E. in the Expense Account Rules setup

F. in the Requisition Preferences setup

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Price Tolerance (%) on the Purchasing Options Control section refers to the percentage by which ___________.

A. the purchase order line price cannot exceed a price quote

B. the invoice price cannot exceed the purchase order line price

C. the purchase order line price cannot exceed the blanket amount

D. the supplier catalog price cannot exceed purchase order line price

E. the purchase order line price cannot exceed the requisition line price

Correct Answer: E


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Question 1:

A Citrix Engineer needs to set up access to an internal application for external partners.

Which two entities must the engineer configure on the Citrix ADC to support this? (Choose two.)

A. SAML Policy

B. SAMLldP Profile

C. SAMLldP Policy

D. SAML Action

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.citrix.com/blogs/2015/04/09/how-to-use-saml-authentication-with- storefront-2-6/


Question 2:

Which action ensures that content is retrieved from the server of origin?

A. CACHE

B. MAY_CACHE

C. NOCACHE

D. MAY_NOCACHE

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-adc/current-release/optimization/integrated- caching/ configure- cookies-headers-and-polling.html


Question 3:

Scenario: During application troubleshooting, a Citrix Engineer notices that response traffic received from a protected web application is NOT matching what the web server is sending out. The auditor is concerned that Man-In-The-Middle attack is in progress.

Which action is the Citrix Web App Firewall performing that would trigger this false positive?

A. Removing the Last-Modified header

B. Inserting a hidden form field

C. Removing the Accept-Encoding header

D. Modifying and adding cookies in the response

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which license must be present on the Citrix ADC for the Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) Service to generate HDX Insight reports that present one year\’s worth of data?

A. Advanced

B. Premium Plus

C. Premium

D. Standard

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) feature can a Citrix Engineer use to narrow a list of Citrix ADC devices based on pre-defined criteria?

A. AutoScale Groups

B. Instance Groups

C. Configuration Template

D. Tags

E. Agent

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which protection can a Citrix Engineer implement to prevent a hacker from extracting a customer list from the company website?

A. Cross-Site Request Forgeries (CSRF)

B. Form Field Consistency

C. HTML Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

D. HTML SQL Injection

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

A Citrix Engineer is notified that no traffic is reaching the protected web application. While investigating, the

engineer notices that the Citrix Web App Firewall policy has 516,72 hits.

What should the engineer check next?

A. The security checks in the assigned profile

B. The HTML Error Object

C. The policy expression

D. The security checks in the global default profile

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer configures Citrix Web App Firewall to protect an application. Users report that they are NOT able to log on. The engineer enables a Start URL relaxation for the path //login.aspx.

What is the effect of the Start URL relaxation on the application?

A. Access to the path /login.aspx is unblocked.

B. Access to the path /login.aspx is blocked.

C. External users are blocked from the path /login.aspx. Internal users are permitted to the path / login.aspx.

D. Non-administrative users are blocked from the path /login.aspx Administrative users are permitted to the path /login.aspx.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer wants to protect a web application using Citrix Web App Firewall. The engineer enables the Learn action for the Start URL, HTML, Cross-Site Scripting, and HTML SQL Injection protections. The engineer assigns this profile to a policy, which is then bound to the virtual server.

Which two items can the engineer check to determine that the Learn action is NOT capturing any rules? (Choose two.)

A. The HTML Error Object is configured for the profile.

B. Enough space is left on the /flash file system.

C. The aslearn process is running on the Citrix ADC appliance.

D. The Learn database is less than 20 MB.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 10:

A Citrix Engineer wants to delegate management of Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to a junior team member.

Which assigned role will limit the team member to view all application-related data?

A. readonly

B. appReadonly

C. admin

D. appAdmin

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-application-delivery-management- service/setting-up/ configuring- role-based-access-control.html


Question 11:

Which Front End Optimization technique causes the Citrix ADC to resize images before sending them to the client?

A. Minify

B. Shrink to Attributes

C. Compression

D. Inlining

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-adc/current-release/optimization/front-end- optimization.html


Question 12:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer implements Application-level Quality of Experience (AppQoE) to protect a web application. Shortly after that, users call to complain that nearly every request is being met with a Captcha.

What can the engineer do to improve the user experience?

A. Disable the Captcha.

B. Increase the DOS Attack Threshold.

C. Increase the Policy Queue Depth.

D. Increase the Session Life.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

What is required for connecting a data center to the Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) Service?

A. Instance

B. Configuration Job

C. Agent

D. Syslog

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-application-delivery-management- service/citrix-applicationdelivery-management-service.html


Question 14:

Which feature of Learning should a Citrix Engineer configure to direct Citrix Web App Firewall to learn from specific sessions?

A. Advanced policy expression filter

B. Default policy expression filter

C. Trusted Learning Clients list

D. Manage Content Types for Safe Commerce

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-adc/current-release/application- firewall/profiles/learning.html


Question 15:

Which Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) Analytics page allows an engineer to monitor the metrics of end-point analysis and authentication failures?

A. Gateway Insight

B. HDX Insight

C. Web Insight

D. Security Insight

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

You have deployed a web application targeting a global audience across multiple Oracle Cloud

Infrastructure (OCI) regions.

You decide to use Traffic Management Geo-Location based Steering Policy to serve web requests to

users from the region closets to the user. Within each region you have deployed a public load balancer

with 4 servers in a backend set. During a DR test disable all web servers in one of the regions however,

traffic Management does not automatically direct all users to the other region.

Which two are possible causes?

A. You did not setup a Route Table associated with load Balancer\’s subnet

B. You did not setup an HTTP Health Check associated with Load Balancer public IP in the disabled region.

C. Rather than using Geo-Location based Steering Policy, you should use Failover Policy Type to serve traffic.

D. One of the two working web servers In the other region did not pass Its HTTP health check

E. You did not correctly setup the Load Balancer HTTP health check policy associated with backend set

Correct Answer: BE

Managing Traffic Management GEOLOCATION Steering Policies Geolocation steering policies distribute DNS traffic to different endpoints based on the location of the end user. Customers can define geographic regions composed of originating continent, countries or states/provinces (North America) and define a separate endpoint or set of endpoints for each region. The Health Checks service allows you to monitor the health of IP addresses and hostnames, as measured from geographic vantage points of your choosing, using HTTP and ping probes. After configuring a health check, you can view the monitor\’s results. The results include the location from which the host was monitored, the availability of the endpoint, and the date and time the test was performed. Also you can Combine Managing Traffic Management GEOLOCATION Steering Policies with Oracle Health Checks to fail over from one region to another The Load Balancing service provides health status indicators that use your health check policies to report on the general health of your load balancers and their components. if you misconfigure the health check Protocol between the Load balancer and backend set that can lead to not get an accurate response as example below If you run a TCP-level health check against an HTTP service, you might not get an accurate response. The TCP handshake can succeed and indicate that the service is up even when the HTTP service is ly configured or having other issues. Although the health check appears good customers might experience transaction failures.


Question 2:

Your team is conducting a root analysis (RCA) following a recent, unplanned outage. One of the block volumes attached to your production WebLogic server was deleted and you have tasked with identifying the source of the action. You search the Audit logs and find several Delete actions that occurred in the previous 24 hours. Given the sample of this event.

Which item from the event log helps you identify the individual or service that initiated the DeleteVolume API call?

A. requestAgent

B. eventource

C. principalld

D. requestOrigin

E. eventId

Correct Answer: C

The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Audit service automatically records calls to all supported Oracle Cloud

Infrastructure public application programming interface (API) endpoints as log events.

Currently, all services support logging by Audit.

Every audit log event includes two main parts:

Envelopes that act as a container for all event messages Payloads that contain data from the resource

emitting the event message The identity object contains the following attributes. data.identity.authType The

type of authentication used.

data.identity.principalId The OCID of the principal.

data.identity.principalName The name of the user or service. This value is the friendly name associated

with principalId .


Question 3:

An online registration system Is currently hosted on one large Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCT) Bare metal compute Instance with attached block volume to store of the users\’ dat

A. The registration system accepts the Information from the user, Including documents and photos then performs automated verification and processing to check it the user is eligible for registration. The registration system becomes unavailable at tunes when there is a surge of users using the system the existing architecture needs improvement as it takes a long time for the system to complete the processing and the attached block volumes are not large enough to use data being uploaded by the users. Which Is the most effective option to achieve a highly scalable solution?

B. Attach more Block volumes as the data volume increase, use Oracle Notification Service (ONS) to distribute tasks to a pool of compute instances working In parallel, and Auto Scaling to dynamically size the pool of Instances depending on the number of notifications received from the Notification Service. Use Resource Manager stacks to replicate your architecture to another region.

C. Change your architecture to use an OCI Object Storage standard tier bucket, replace the single bare metal instance with a Oracle Streaming Service (OSS) to ingest the Incoming requests and distribute the tasks to a group of compute Instances with Auto Scaling

D. Upgrade your architecture to use a pool of Bare metal servers and configure them to use their local SSDs for faster data access Set up Oracle Streaming Service (OSS) to distribute the tasks to the pool of Bare metal Instances with Auto Scaling to dynamically increase or decrease the pool of compute instances depending on the length of the Streaming queue.

E. Upgrade your architecture to use more Block volumes as the data volume Increases. Replace the single bare metal instance with a group of compute instances with Auto Scaling to dynamically increase or decrease the compute instance pools depending on the traffic.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A data analytics company has been building Its now generation big data and analytics platform on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). They need a storage service that provide the scale and performance that their big data applications require such as high throughput to compute nodes with low latency file operations in addition, their data needs to be stored redundantly across multiple nodes In a single availability domain and allows concurrent connections from multiple compute Instances hosted on multiple availability domains. Which OCI storage service can you use to meet i his requirement?

A. Object Storage

B. File System Storage

C. Archive storage

D. Block Volume

Correct Answer: B

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure File Storage service provides a durable, scalable, secure, enterprise-grade network file system. You can connect to a File Storage service file system from any bare metal, virtual machine, or container instance in your Virtual Cloud Network (VCN). You can also access a file system from outside the VCN using Oracle Cloud Infrastructure FastConnect and Internet Protocol security (IPSec) virtual private network (VPN). Use the File Storage service when your application or workload includes big data and analytics, media processing, or content management, and you require Portable Operating System Interface (POSIX)compliant file system access semantics and concurrently accessible storage. The File Storage service is designed to meet the needs of applications and users that need an enterprise file system across a wide range of use cases


Question 5:

You have an Oracle database system in a virtual cloud network (VCN) that needs to be accessible on port

1521 from your on-premises network CIDR 172.17.0.0/24.

You have the following configuration currently.

Virtual cloud network (VCD) is associated with a Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG), and DRG has an

active IPSec connection with your on-premises data center.

Oracle database system is hosted in a private subnet

The private subnet route table has the following configuration The private subnet route table has following

configuration.

However, you are still unable to connect to the Oracle Database system. Which action will resolve this issue?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

You have provisioned a new VM.DenseIO2.24 compute instance with local NVMe drives. The compute instance is running production application. This is a write heavy application, with a significant Impact to the business it the application goes down. What should you do to help maintain write performance and protect against NVMe devices failure.

A. NVMe drive have built in capability to recover themself so no other actions are required

B. Configure RAID 6 for NVMe devices.

C. Configure RAID 1 for NVMe devices.

D. Configure RAID 10 for NVMe devices.

Correct Answer: D

VM.DeselO2.24 compute instance include locally attached NVMe devices. These devices provide extremely low latency, high performance block storage that is ideal for big data, OLTP, and any other workload that can benefit from high-performance block storage. A protected RAID array is the most recommended way to protect against an NVMe device failure. There are three RAID levels that can be used for the majority of workloads: RAID 1: An exact copy (or mirror) of a set of data on two or more disks; a classic RAID 1 mirrored pair contains two disks RAID 10: Stripes data across multiple mirrored pairs. As long as one disk in each mirrored pair is functional, data can be retrieved RAID 6: Block-level striping with two parity blocks distributed across all member disks If you need the best possible performance and can sacrifice some of your available space, then RAID 10 array is an option.


Question 7:

A civil engineering company is running an online portal In which engineers can upload there constructions photos, videos, and other digital files. There is a new requirement for you to implement: the online portal must offload the digital content to an Object Storage bucket for a period of 72 hours. After the provided time limit has elapsed, the portal will hold all the digital content locally and wait for the next offload period. Which option fulfills this requirement?

A. Create a pre-authenticated URL for the entire Object Storage bucket to read and list the content with an expiration of 72 hours.

B. Create a pre authenticated URL lot each object that Is uploaded to the Object Storage bucket with an expiration of 72 hours.

C. Create a Dynamic Group with matching rule for the portal compute Instance and grant access to the Object Storage bucket for 72 hours.

D. Create a pre authenticated URL for the entire Object Storage bucket to write content with an expiration of 72 hours.

Correct Answer: D

Pre-authenticated requests provide a way to let users access a bucket or an object without having their own credentials, as long as the request creator has permission to access those objects. For example, you can create a request that lets operations support user upload backups to a bucket without owning API keys. Or, you can create a request that lets a business partner update shared data in a bucket without owning API keys. When creating a pre-authenticated request, you have the following options: You can specify the name of a bucket that a pre-authenticated request user has write access to and can upload one or more objects to. You can specify the name of an object that a pre-authenticated request user can read from, write to, or read from and write to. Scope and Constraints Understand the following scope and constraints regarding pre-authenticated requests: Users can\’t list bucket contents. You can create an unlimited number of pre-authenticated requests. There is no time limit to the expiration date that you can set. You can\’t edit a pre-authenticated request. If you want to change user access options in response to changing requirements, you must create a new pre-authenticated request. The target and actions for a pre-authenticated request are based on the creator\’s permissions. The request is not, however, bound to the creator\’s account login credentials. If the creator\’s login credentials change, a pre-authenticated request is not affected. You cannot delete a bucket that has a pre-authenticated request associated with that bucket or with an object in that bucket.


Question 8:

You are working as a solution architect for an online retail store to create a portal to allow the users to pay for their groceries using credit cards. Since the application is not fully compliant with the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), your company is looking to use a third party payment service to process credit card payments. The third party service allows a maximum of Spelunk IP addresses 5 public IP addresses at a time However, your website is using Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Instance Pool Auto Scaling policy to create up to create up to 15 Instances during peak traffic demand, which are launched In VCN private in VCN private subnets and attached to an OCI public Load Balancer. Upon user payment, the portal connects to the payment service over the Interne! to complete the transaction What solution can you implement to make sure that all compute Instances can connect to the third party system to process the payments aw peak traffic demand?

A. Route credit card payment request from the compute instances through the NAT Gateway. On the third-party services, whitelist the public IP associated with the NAT Gateway.

B. Create an OCI Command Line Interface (CLI) script to automatically reserve public IP address for the compute instances. On the third-party services, whitelist the Reserved public IP.

C. Whitelist the Internet Gateway Public IP on the third party service and route all payment requests through the Internet Gateway.

D. Route payment request from the compute instances through the OCI Load Balancer, which will then be routed to the third party service.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Your customer recently ordered for a 1-Gbps Fast Connect connection In ap-tokyo-1 region of Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). They will us this to one Virtual cloud Network (VCN) in their production (OC1) tenancy and VCN In their development OC1 tenancy As a Solution Architect, how should yon configure and architect the connectivity between on premises and VCNs In OCI?

A. Create two private virtual circuits on the FastConnect link. Create two Dynamic Routing Gateways, one for each VCNs. Attach the virtual circuits to the dynamic routing gateways.

B. You cannot achieve connectivity using single FastConnect link as the production and the development VCNs-are in separate tenancies. Request one more FastConnect connection.

C. Create a single private virtual circuit over FastConnect and attach fastConnect to either of the VCN\’s Dynamic Routing Gateway. Use Remote Peering to peer production and development VCNs.

D. Create a hub-VCN that uses Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) to communicate with on-premises network over FastConnect. Connect the hub-VCN to the production VCN spoke and with development VCN spoke, each peered via their respective local Peering Gateway (LPG)

Correct Answer: D

There\’s an advanced routing scenario called transit routing that enables communication between an onpremises network and multiple VCNs over a single Oracle Cloud Infrastructure FastConnect or IPSec VPN. The VCNs must be in the same region and locally peered in a hub-and-spoke layout. As part of the scenario, the VCN that is acting as the hub has a route table associated with each LPG (typically route tables are associated with a VCN\’s subnets).


Question 10:

Which three scenarios are suitable for the Oracle Infrastructure (OCI) Autonomous transaction Processing Server less (ATP-S) deployment?

A. well established, online auction marketplace is running an application where there is database usage 24? but also has peaks of activity that the hard to predict when the peaks happen, the total activities may reach 3 times the normal activity level (Correct)

B. A small startup is deploying a new application fen eCommerce and it requires database to store customers\’ transactions the team b of what the load will look like since it is a new application. (Correct)

C. A midsize company is considering migrating its legacy on premises MongoDB database to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). The database has significantly higher workloads on weekends than weekdays

D. A developer working on an Internal project needs to use a database during work hours but doesn\’t need It during nights or weekends. the project budget requires her to keep costs low. (Correct)

E. A manufacturing company is running Oracle E-Business Suite application on premises. They are looking to move this application to OCI and they want to use a managed database offering for their database tier.

Correct Answer: ABD

MongoDB is a cross-platform document-oriented database program. Classified as a NoSQL database program, MongoDB uses JSON-like documents with schema, so the best to be migrated to Oracle NoSQL Database. https://blogs.oracle.com/nosql/migrate-mongodb-data-to-oracle-nosql-database Autonomous transaction Processing Serverless (ATP-S) isn\’t supported yet for EBS database


Question 11:

The Finance department of your company has reached out to you. They have customer sensitive data on

compute Instances In Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) which they want to store in OCI Storage for long

term retention and archival.

To meet security requirements they want to ensure this data is NOT transferred over public internet, even if

encrypted.

which they want to store In OCI Object Storage fin long term retention and archival To meet security

requirements they want to ensure this data is NOT transferred over public Internet, even it encrypted.

Which option meets this requirements?

A. Configure a NAT instance and all traffic between compute In Private subnet should use this NAT instance with Private IP as the route target.

B. Use NAT gateway with appropriate route table when transferring data. Then use NAT gateways\’ toggle (on/off) once data transfer is complete.

C. Use Service gateway with appropriate route table.

D. Use Storage gateway with appropriate firewall rule.

Correct Answer: C

Service Gateway is virtual router that you can add to your VCN. It provides a path for private network traffic between your VCN and supported services in the Oracle Services Network like Object Storage) so compute Instances in a private subnet in your VCN can back up data to Object Storage without needing public IP addresses or access to the intern


Question 12:

By copying block volume backups to another region at regular intervals, it makes it easier for you to rebuild applications and data in the destination region if a region-wide disaster occurs in the source region. Which IAM Policy statement allows the VolumeAdmins group to copy volume backups between regions \’

A. Allow group VolumeAdmins to use volumes in tenancy

B. Allow group VolumeAdmins to copy volume\’ backups in tenancy

C. Allow group VolumeAdmins to manage volume-family In tenancy

D. Allow group VolumeAdmins to inspect volumes in tenancy

Correct Answer: C

The backups feature of the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Block Volume service lets you make a point- intime snapshot of the data on a block volume.These backups can then be restored to new volumes either immediately after a backup or at a later time that you choose. You can copy block volume backups between regions using the Console, command line interface (CLI), SDKs, or REST APIs. To copy volume backups between regions, you must have permission to read and copy volume backups in the source region, and permission to create volume backups in the destination region. to do all things with block storage volumes, volume backups, and volume groups in all compartments with the exception of copying volume backups across regions. Allow group VolumeAdmins to manage volume-family in tenancy The aggregate resource type volume-family does not include the VOLUME_BACKUP_COPY permission, so to enable copying volume backups across regions you need to ensure that you include the third statement in that policy, which is: Allow group VolumeAdmins to use volume-backups in tenancy where request.permission=\’VOLUME _BACKUP_COPY\’


Question 13:

A global retailer is setting up the cloud architecture to be deployed in Oracle Cloud infrastructure (OCI) which will have thousands of users from two major geographical regions: North America and Asia Pacific. The requirements of the services are:

*

Service needs to be available 27/7 to avoid any business disruption

*

North American customers should be served by application running In North American regions

*

Asia Pacific customers should be served by applications running In Asia Pacific regions

*

Must be resilient enough to handle the outage of an entire OCI region

A.

OCl DNS, Traffic Management with Failover steering policy

B.

OCl DNS, Traffic Management with Geolocation steering policy. Health Checks

C.

OCl DNS, Traffic Management with Geolocation steering policy

D.

OCl DNS,\’ Traffic Management with Load Balancer steering policy, Health Checks

Correct Answer: B

GEOLOCATION STEERING Geolocation steering policies distribute DNS traffic to different endpoints based on the location of the end user. Customers can define geographic regions composed of originating continent, countries or states/ provinces (North America) and define a separate endpoint or set of endpoints for each region. Combine with Oracle Health Checks to fail over from one region to another


Question 14:

A retail company has several on-premises data centers which span multiple geographical locations. They plan to move some of their applications from on-premises data centers to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). For these applications running in OCI, they still need to interact with applications running on their on-premises data centers to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). for these applications running in OCI. they still need to interact with applications running on their on-premises data centers. These applications require highly available, fault-tolerant network connections between on premises data centers and OCI. Which option should you recommend to provide the highest level of redundancy?

A. Oracle cloud Infrastructure provides network redundancy by default so that no other operations are required

B. If your data centers span multiple, geographical locations, use only the specific IP address as a static route for the specific geographical location

C. Set up both IPSec VPN and FastConnect to connect your on premises data centers to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure.

D. Use FastConnect private peering only to ensure secure access from your data center to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure

E. Set up a single IPSec VPN connection (rom your data center to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure since It is cost effective

Correct Answer: B

If your data centers span multiple geographical locations, we recommend using a broad CIDR (0.0.0.0/0) as a static route in addition to the CIDR of the specific geographical location. This broad CIDR provides high availability and flexibility to your network design. For instance, the following diagram shows two networks in separate geographical areas that each connect to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure. Each area has a single on-premises router, so two IPSec VPN connections can be created. Note that each IPSec VPN connection has two static routes: one for the CIDR of the particular geographical area, and a broad 0.0.0.0/0 static route.


Question 15:

A global retailer has decided to re-design its e-commerce platform to have a micro-services architecture.

They would like to decouple application architecture into smaller, independent services using Oracle Cloud

Infrastructure (OCI). They have decided to use both containers and servers technologies to run these

application instances.

Which option should you recommend to build this new platform?

A. Install a kubernetes cluster on OCI and use OCI event service.

B. Use Oracle Container Engine for kubernetes, OCI Registry and OCI Functions.

C. Use OCI Resource Manager to automate compute Instances provisioning and use OCI Streaming service.

D. Use OCI functions, OCI object storage and OCI event service.

Correct Answer: B

Oracle Functions is a fully managed, multi-tenant, highly scalable, on-demand, Functions-as-a- Service platform. It is built on enterprise-grade Oracle Cloud Infrastructure and powered by the Fn Project open source engine. Use Oracle Functions (sometimes abbreviated to just Functions) when you want to focus on writing code to meet business needs.

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for Kubernetes is a fully-managed, scalable, and highly available service that you can use to deploy your containerized applications to the cloud. Use Container Engine for Kubernetes (sometimes abbreviated to just OKE) when your development team wants to reliably build, deploy, and manage cloud-native applications. You specify the compute resources that your applications require, and Container Engine for Kubernetes provisions them on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure in an existing OCI tenancy.


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Question 1:

An environment is running a VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC) with six i3.metal hosts. Storage space usage has increased and the administrator is required to add storage capacity. Which two approaches can the administrator take to add storage capacity? (Choose two.)

A. Deploy Amazon Elastic File System (EFS) file shares from the AWS console and attach them to the i3.metal hosts. Use VMware Storage vMotion to migrate the storage-bound virtual machines to the Amazon EFS data stores.

B. Deploy Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS) storage volumes (GP2) from the AWS console and attach them to the i3.metal hosts. Allow VMware vSAN extend the storage capacity automatically.

C. Deploy an additional cluster based on i3en.metal hosts and migrate the storage-bound virtual machines to the i3en.metal hosts.

D. Add additional i3.metal hosts to increase the total vSAN storage space.

E. Add additional i3en.metal hosts and migrate the storage-bound virtual machines to the i3en.metal hosts.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 2:

An environment is running a cluster with six i3.metal hosts in the VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC). If one host fails, what happens after a new host is automatically added to the cluster?

A. The SDDC and NVMe drives backing VMware vSAN capacity are unmounted from the failed host and attached to the new host. There is no VMware vSAN rebuild required.

B. The VMware vSAN rebuild starts in the background. Performance might be degraded during rebuild and the failures to tolerate (FTT) is lowered to 0.

C. The VMware vSAN rebuild starts in the background. Performance might be degraded during rebuild and the failures to tolerate (FTT) is lowered to 1.

D. A notification is received from VMware Support to start the VMware vSAN rebuild. Performance might be degraded during rebuild.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

An administrator deploys a virtual machine and configures it to perform backups to an AWS Simple Storage Service (S3) bucket. After the first month of use, the administrator receives a bill from AWS indicating egress charges were applied to the backup traffic leaving the software-defined data center (SDCC), destined for the AWS S3 bucket. What can the administrator do to ensure backup traffic travels to the linked Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) through the Elastic Network Interface?

A. Configure the S3 bucket with a public endpoint accessible over the Internet through HTTPS.

B. Configure Direct Connect to a private virtual interface for access to AWS services.

C. Create a gateway endpoint in the linked AWS VPC and configure it for use with the S3 bucket.

D. Configure a route-based virtual private network (VPN) for the SDDC to the VPC.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A customer wants to ensure that VMware Cloud on AWS maintenance operations are performed during their maintenance window. Which option would allow the customer to achieve this outcome?

A. Schedule a maintenance preference in the software-defined data center (SDDC) console.

B. Schedule a call with VMware Cloud on AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window.

C. Schedule a call with AWS Support and schedule a maintenance window.

D. Schedule a maintenance window through an online support request.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

An administrator runs an analysis on all workloads using Live Optics and confirms there are a variety of applications, including Microsoft SQL server and Oracle databases. The Microsoft SQL workloads are averaging 4,000 IOPS per virtual machine, approximately 50% writes. The Oracle workloads are averaging 3,000 IOPS per virtual machine, and approximately 80% writes. Which method should be used to input the data into the VMware Cloud on AWS Sizer for the most accurate results?

A. Use the Advanced Sizer in \’database\’ mode. Create workload profiles for the analyzed virtual machines, including profiles for Microsoft SQL and Oracle. Set the values for vCPU, vRAM, utilized storage, IOPS and I/O profile manually.

B. Use the Quick Sizer. Set the values for vCPU, vRAM, utilized storage, IOPS and I/O profile manually.

C. Use the Advanced Sizer in \’import\’ mode. Import the Live Optics data and let the Advanced Sizer set the values for vCPU, vRAM, utilized storage, IOPS and I/O automatically.

D. Use the Advanced Sizer in \’manual\’ mode. Create workload profiles for the analyzed virtual machines, including profiles for Microsoft SQL and Oracle. Use the default values for the SQL and Oracle workload profiles.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

An administrator has deployed VMware Cloud on AWS and requires a single broadcast domain for a set of

virtual machines that reside both in the data center and in the software-defined data center (SDDC) over a

DirectConnect connection.

How can the administrator accomplish this without adding additional components in the cloud?

A. Duplicate the IP space in both locations and manually move the virtual machines.

B. Deploy a Layer 2 Virtual Private Network (L2VPN).

C. Use a third-party networking tool to extend the broadcast domain.

D. Deploy VMware HCX and a Service Mesh with a Network Extension appliance.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

An administrator is trying to identify how many hosts will be required to evacuate a cluster from an existing data center and relocate those workloads into VMware Cloud on AWS. The cluster runs a variety of workloads for the corporate customer relationship management system. Which three profiles could the administrator create in the VMware Cloud on AWS Sizer? (Choose three.)

A. Databases ?Oracle

B. Databases ?Microsoft SQL Server

C. General Purpose (Application VMs)

D. VDI ?Instant Clone

E. VDI ?Full Clone

F. General Purpose (General VMs)

Correct Answer: BEF


Question 8:

An administrator deploys a VMware Cloud on AWS environment and configures an IPsec virtual private network (VPN) tunnel to their data center. Hybrid Linked Mode connectivity, however, does NOT appear to be working. Before contacting VMware Support, what could the administrator do to narrow down the possible issue?

A. Fill in the relevant IP information for the on-premises infrastructure and run the desired troubleshooting connectivity test.

B. Download and review the Tier-0 (TO) gateway firewall logs.

C. Configure a packet capture device in the on-premises data center to capture packets from the VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC) to determine which packets are being dropped.

D. Configure a packet capture appliance on a local segment within VMware Cloud on AWS to capture and analyze traffic across a specific NSX-T gateway interface.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

When deploying a VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC), which components are deployed automatically?

A. VMware ESXi, vCenter, vSAN, NSX, Hybrid Linked Mode

B. VMware ESXi, vCenter, vSAN, NSX in active/passive mode

C. VMware ESXi, vCenter, vSAN, NSX, HCX

D. VMware ESXi, vCenter, vSAN, NSX in active/active mode

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator completes an assessment of its local data center for potential migration into VMware Cloud on AWS. After reviewing and analyzing the data and taking into account the company\’s business and IT priorities and budget constraints, connectivity between its on-premises and VMware Cloud on AWS environment will NOT require any high speed low latency connections. All new networks should be added to the software-defined data center (SDDC) routing table automatically when created. Which connection supports these requirements?

A. Layer 2 VPN (L2VPN)

B. AWS Direct Connect

C. Route-based VPN

D. Policy-based VPN

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

A consultant is asked to help evaluate an environment for deployment into a new software-defined data center (SDDC) in VMware Cloud on AWS. The consultant is provided with a comma-separated value (CSV) file containing a list of workloads exported from VMware vCenter detailing only virtual machine configuration data, including vCPU, vRAM, and utilized storage. How should the consultant use the VMC on AWS Sizer?

A. Use the Advanced Sizer. Create workload profiles for the different workload types and set the values for configured resources manually.

B. Use the Advanced Sizer. Import the CSV file from VMware vCenter Server and let the VMware Cloud on AWS Sizer set the values for configured resources.

C. Use the Advanced Sizer. Import the CSV file from VMware vCenter Server and let the VMware Cloud on AWS Sizer set the values for configured resources.

D. Use the Quick Sizer. Manually enter the number of virtual machines and total resources for configured resources.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

An administrator deploys a virtual machine to its software-defined data center (SDDC) and configures it to perform backups of the other virtual machines in the SDDC. The administrator also creates an AWS Simple Storage Service (S3) bucket in the linked Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) and is attempting to use the S3 bucket as a repository for their backups. The administrator confirms that the backup software is capable of using AWS S3 storage as a backup repository, and that the AWS S3 bucket is configured to use an endpoint in the linked VPC. What else should the administrator do to ensure connectivity between SDDC virtual machines and the AWS S3 repository in the linked VPC through the Elastic Network Interface?

A. Configure Direct Connect to a Private Virtual Interface for access to AWS services.

B. Configure a route-based VPN for the SDDC to the VPC.

C. Configure Direct Connect to a Public Virtual Interface for access to AWS services.

D. Ensure Service Access for S3 is enabled in Networking and Security for the SDDC.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator builds a software-defined data center (SDDC) group to enable connectivity to native Amazon Virtual Private Clouds (VPCs). Which connectivity option is needed to enable connectivity across environments?

A. Tier-0 (T0) Router

B. Transit Gateway

C. Virtual Private Network

D. The Default Storage Scale-Out policy storage threshold is set 5% higher than the other Elastic DRS storage policies.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which two statements are true about the characteristics of the Default Storage Scale-Out policy? (Choose two.)

A. Elastic DRS automatically sets to the Default Storage Scale-Out policy, adding hosts only when storage utilization exceeds a certain threshold.

B. When the storage threshold of the Default Storage Scale-Out policy has been resolved, Elastic DRS automatically performs a scale-in operation.

C. The Default Storage Scale-Out policy storage threshold level is set to meet SLA requirements and can

not be superseded by other Elastic DRS policies.

D. The Default Storage Scale-Out policy thresholds for CPU or memory usage are set higher than the other Elastic DRS policies.

E. The Default Storage Scale-Out policy storage threshold is set 5% higher than the other Elastic DRS storage policies.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 15:

Which two accounts are mandatory prerequisites for the successful deployment of a VMware Cloud on AWS solution? (Choose two.)

A. A VMware vCenter Server account

B. An AWS account

C. A VMware Cloud account

D. An Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) account

E. A VMware Cloud on AWS account

Correct Answer: AE


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Question 1:

Journalling doesn\’t appear to be working on an ext3 file-system. When booting, the following line appears:

VFS: Mounted root (ext2 filesystem) readonly. What could be causing the problem?

A. An old version of e2fsprogs is installed.

B. The kernel does not contain ext3 support.

C. The file-system is specified as ext2 in/etc/fstab.

D. The system was not shut down cleanly.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

What is the missing keyword in the following configuration sample for dovecot which defines which authentication types to support?

(Specify only the keywork) auth default { ______ = plain login cram-md5 }

A. auth_order

B. mechanisms

C. methods

D. supported

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

You suspect that you are receiving messages with a forged From: address. What could help you find out where the mail is originating?

A. Install TCP wrappers, and log all connections on port 25

B. A dd the command \’FR-strlog\’ to the sendmail.cf file

C. Add the command \’define (\’LOG_REAL_FROM\’) dnl\’ to the sendmail.mc file

D. Run a filter in the aliases file that checks the originating address when mail arrives

E. Look in the ReceiveD. and Message-ID. parts of the mail header

Correct Answer: E


Question 4:

Which of the following organisations track and report on security related flaws in computer technology? (Please select TWO answers)

A. Bugtraq

B. CERT

C. CSIS

D. Freshmeat

E. Kernel.org

Correct Answer: AC


Question 5:

Which of the following options can be passed to a DHCP client machine using configuration options on the DHCP server?

A. The NIS domain name

B. The resolving order in /etc/resolv.conf

C. The priority order in nsswitch.conf

D. The filter rules for iptables

E. The contents of hosts.allow and hosts.deny

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which Squid configuration directive defines the authentication method to use?

A. auth_param

B. auth_method

C. auth_program

D. auth_mechanism

E. proxy_auth

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

There is a restricted area in an Apache site, which requires users to authenticate against the file /srv/ www/ security/site-passwd.

Which command is used to CHANGE the password of existing users, without losing data, when Basic authentication is being used.

A. htpasswd -c /srv/www/security/site passwd user

B. htpasswd /srv/www/security/site-passwd user

C. htpasswd -n /srv/www/security/site-passwd user

D. htpasswd -D /srv/www/security/site-passwd user

E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

When Apache is configured to use name-based virtual hosts:

A. it\’s also necessary to configure a different IP address for each virtual host.

B. the Listen directive is ignored by the server.

C. it starts multiple daemons (one for each virtual host).

D. it\’s also necessary to create a VirtualHost block for the main host.

E. only the directives ServerName and DocumentRoot may be used inside a block.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which option must be used with ifconfig, to also see interfaces that are down?

A. -d

B. -a

C. –all

D. –down

E. None.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

An SSH server is configured to use tcp_wrappers and only hosts from the class C network 192.168.1.0 should be allowed to access it. Which of the following lines would achieve this, when entered in/etc/hosts.allow?

A. ALLOW: 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0 : sshd

B. sshd : 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0 : ALLOW

C. 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0 : ALLOW: sshd

D. tcpD. sshd : 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0 : ALLOW

E. sshd : ALLOW: 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which TWO /etc/hosts.allow entries will allow access to sshd from the class C network 192.168.1.0?

A. sshd : 192.168.1.

B. sshd : 192.168.1

C. sshd : 192.168.1.0 netmask 255.255.255.0

D. sshd : 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0

E. sshd : 192.168.1.0

Correct Answer: AD


Question 12:

Which of the following can the program tripwire NOT check?

A. File size.

B. File signature.

C. Permissions.

D. File existence.

E. Boot sectors.

Correct Answer: E


Question 13:

Which command line create an SSH tunnel for POP and SMTP protocols?

A. ssh- L :110 -L :25 -1 user -N mailhost

B. ssh -L 25:110 -1 user -N mailhost

C. ssh -L mailhost:110 -L mailhost:25 -1 user -N mailhost

D. ssh -L mailhost:25:110 -1 user

E. ssh -L 110:mailhost:110 -L 25:mailhost:25 -1 user -N mailhost

Correct Answer: E


Question 14:

Which command would release the current IP address leased by a DHCP server?

A. ipconfig /release

B. ifconfig –release-all

C. dhclient -r

D. ifconfig –release

E. pump –release

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

What command can be used to check the Samba configuration file?

A. testconfig

B. testsmbconfig

C. smbtestcfg

D. smbtestparm

E. testparm

Correct Answer: E


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Question 1:

Which of the following is not a component of contractual PII?

A. Scope of processing

B. Value of data

C. Location of data

D. Use of subcontractors

Correct Answer: C

The value of data itself has nothing to do with it being considered a part of contractual


Question 2:

Which of the following roles involves testing, monitoring, and securing cloud services for an organization?

A. Cloud service integrator

B. Cloud service business manager

C. Cloud service user

D. Cloud service administrator

Correct Answer: D

The cloud service administrator is responsible for testing cloud services, monitoring services, administering security for services, providing usage reports on cloud services, and addressing problem reports


Question 3:

What is the only data format permitted with the SOAP API?

A. HTML

B. SAML

C. XSML

D. XML

Correct Answer: D

The SOAP protocol only supports the XML data format.


Question 4:

Which of the following roles involves overseeing billing, purchasing, and requesting audit reports for an organization within a cloud environment?

A. Cloud service user

B. Cloud service business manager

C. Cloud service administrator

D. Cloud service integrator

Correct Answer: B

The cloud service business manager is responsible for overseeing business and billing administration, purchasing cloud services, and requesting audit reports when necessary


Question 5:

What is the biggest concern with hosting a key management system outside of the cloud environment?

A. Confidentiality

B. Portability

C. Availability

D. Integrity

Correct Answer: C

When a key management system is outside of the cloud environment hosting the application, availability is a primary concern because any access issues with the encryption keys will render the entire application unusable.


Question 6:

What does the management plane typically utilize to perform administrative functions on the hypervisors that it has access to?

A. Scripts

B. RDP

C. APIs

D. XML

Correct Answer: C

The functions of the management plane are typically exposed as a series of remote calls and function executions and as a set of APIs. These APIs are typically leveraged through either a client or a web portal, with the latter being the most common.


Question 7:

Which of the following publishes the most commonly used standard for data center design in regard to tiers and topologies?

A. IDCA

B. Uptime Institute

C. NFPA

D. BICSI

Correct Answer: B

The Uptime Institute publishes the most commonly used and widely known standard on data center tiers and topologies. It is based on a series of four tiers, with each progressive increase in number representing more stringent, reliable, and redundant systems for security, connectivity, fault tolerance, redundancy, and cooling.


Question 8:

What is used for local, physical access to hardware within a data center?

A. SSH

B. KVM

C. VPN

D. RDP

Correct Answer: B

Local, physical access in a data center is done via KVM (keyboard, video, mouse) switches.


Question 9:

Within an Infrastructure as a Service model, which of the following would NOT be a measured service?

A. CPU

B. Storage

C. Number of users

D. Memory

Correct Answer: C

Within IaaS, the number of users on a system is not relevant to the particular hosting model in regard to cloud resources. IaaS is focused on infrastructure needs of a system or application. Therefore, a factor such as the number of users that could affect licensing requirements, for example, would apply to the SaaS model, or in some instances to PaaS.


Question 10:

Which United States law is focused on accounting and financial practices of organizations?

A. Safe Harbor

B. GLBA

C. SOX

D. HIPAA

Correct Answer: C

The Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) Act is not an act that pertains to privacy or IT security directly, but rather regulates accounting and financial practices used by organizations. It was passed to protect stakeholders and shareholders from improper practices and errors, and it sets forth rules for compliance, regulated and enforced by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC). The main influence on IT systems and operations is the requirements it sets for data retention, specifically in regard to what types of records must be preserved and for how long.


Question 11:

What type of masking strategy involves making a separate and distinct copy of data with masking in place?

A. Dynamic

B. Replication

C. Static

D. Duplication

Correct Answer: C

With static masking, a separate and distinct copy of the data set is created with masking in place. This is typically done through a script or other process that takes a standard data set, processes it to mask the appropriate and predefined fields, and then outputs the data set as a new one with the completed masking done.


Question 12:

Which of the following storage types is most closely associated with a database-type storage implementation?

A. Object

B. Unstructured

C. Volume

D. Structured

Correct Answer: D

Structured storage involves organized and categorized data, which most closely resembles and operates like a database system would.


Question 13:

Which of the following roles is responsible for overseeing customer relationships and the processing of financial transactions?

A. Cloud service manager

B. Cloud service deployment

C. Cloud service business manager

D. Cloud service operations manager

Correct Answer: C

The cloud service business manager is responsible for overseeing business plans and customer relationships as well as processing financial transactions.


Question 14:

Which of the following security measures done at the network layer in a traditional data center are also applicable to a cloud environment?

A. Dedicated switches

B. Trust zones

C. Redundant network circuits

D. Direct connections

Correct Answer: B

Trust zones can be implemented to separate systems or tiers along logical lines for great security and access controls. Each zone can then have its own security controls and monitoring based on its particular needs.


Question 15:

Which of the following attempts to establish an international standard for eDiscovery processes and best practices?

A. ISO/IEC 31000

B. ISO/IEC 27050

C. ISO/IEC 19888

D. ISO/IEC 27001

Correct Answer: B

ISO/IEC 27050 strives to establish an internationally accepted standard for eDiscovery processes and best practices. It encompasses all steps of the eDiscovery process: identification, preservation, collection, processing, review, analysis, and the final production of the requested data.