[Newest Version] Easily Pass EX0-101 Exam with Geekcert Updated Real home EX0-101 Exam Materials

Geekcert provides the most up to date and accurate preparing materials of the Recent Updates Latest EX0-101 study guide certification exam Q and A , testing software, exam PDF and VCE files to help you prepare your Recent Updates Jan 14,2022 Newest EX0-101 QAs ITIL Foundation V 3.0 and ITIL Foundation exam. What training you are looking for? Come to visit our site and choose Geekcert online certification materials, you will get a quick and cost-efficient way to become a home Recent Updates certified professional in IT industry.

Geekcert- hottest EX0-101 certification practice questions and answers. help candidates get well prepared for their EX0-101 certification exams. Geekcert – leading source of EX0-101 certification exam learning/practice. updated 2016 for all EX0-101 top certifications | Geekcert . Geekcert – most reliable and professional EX0-101 certification exam material provider. real latest, easily pass.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest EX0-101 preparation materials from home Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/EX0-101.html

The following are the EX0-101 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our EX0-101 dumps.Do you what to see some samples before EX0-101 exam? Check the following EX0-101 free dumps or download EX0-101 dumps here.

Question 1:

Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

A. Capacity management

B. Incident management

C. Service level management

D. Financial management

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?

A. Service asset and configuration management

B. Event management

C. Service catalogue management

D. Problem management

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Consider the following list:

1.

Change authority

2.

Change manager

3.

Change advisory board (CAB)

Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?

A. Job descriptions

B. Functions

C. Teams

D. Roles, people or groups

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the implementation of a new service?

A. A service option

B. A service transition package (STP)

C. A service design package (SDP)

D. A service charter

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which one of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?

A. Value on investment (VOI) and return on investment (ROI)

B. Customer and user satisfaction

C. Service requirements and warranty

D. Resources and capabilities

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?

1.

To automatically detect service-affecting events

2.

To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible

3.

To minimize adverse impacts on business operations

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only C

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?

A. Technical management

B. Emergency change advisory board

C. Urgent change board

D. Urgent change authority

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?

A. To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified during design

B. To design and develop capabilities for service management

C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services

D. To plan the resources required to manage a release

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A. Continual service improvement

B. Change management

C. Service level management

D. Availability management

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which of the following are managed by facilities management?

1.

Hardware within a data centre or computer room

2.

Applications

3.

Power and cooling equipment

4.

Recovery sites

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. All of the above

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?

A. Service design

B. Service transition

C. Continual service improvement

D. Service operation

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?

1.

Local service desk

2.

Virtual service desk

3.

IT help desk

4.

Follow the sun

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which one of the following activities are carried out during the Where do we want to be? step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?

A. Implementing service and process improvements

B. Reviewing measurements and metrics

C. Creating a baseline

D. Defining measurable targets

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which one of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?

A. Minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented

B. Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening

C. Eliminating recurring incidents

D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction?

A. Capacity management

B. Governance

C. Service design

D. Service level management

Correct Answer: B


Free Providing Geekcert Pegasystems PEGACSA71V1 VCE Exam Study Guides With New Update Exam Questions

How to pass Newest PEGACSA71V1 free download exam easily with less time? Geekcert provides the most valid Jan 14,2022 Latest PEGACSA71V1 QAs exam preparation material to boost your success rate in Pegasystems Pega CSA Latest PEGACSA71V1 pdf Certified System Architect (CSA) 71V1 exam. If you are one of the successful candidates with Geekcert Hotest PEGACSA71V1 exam questions PDF and VCEs, do not hesitate to share your reviews on our Pegasystems Pega CSA materials.

Geekcert – best way to guarantee your PEGACSA71V1 certification and exam success! Geekcert | PEGACSA71V1 certification materials | videos | study guides. Geekcert – help candidates on all PEGACSA71V1 certification exams preparation. pass PEGACSA71V1 certification exams, get PEGACSA71V1 certifications easily. Geekcert PEGACSA71V1 exam certification prep online course training.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest PEGACSA71V1 preparation materials from Pegasystems Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/pegacsa71v1.html

The following are the PEGACSA71V1 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our PEGACSA71V1 dumps.Real questions from PEGACSA71V1 free dumps. Download demo of PEGACSA71V1 dumps to check the validity.

Question 1:

When creating an application with both implementation and framework classes, which class would be the directed parent of a work class in the implementation layer (e.g. MyCo-MyDiv- BankApp-Work-OpenAccount)? (Choose One)

A. The corresponding work class in the framework layer (MyCo-FW-BankApp-Work- OpenAccount)

B. The class group in the framework layer (MyCo-FW-BankApp-Work)

C. The class group in the implementation layer (MyCo-MyDiv-BankApp-Work)

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Select the statement about a subcase creation that is incorrect

A. A subcase cannot be created manually by an end user

B. A subcase can be created using a smart shape

C. A subcase can be created in a stage step

D. A subcase can be created automatically when a parent case is created

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which of the following is not true of a data class? (Choose One)

A. It must inherit, either directly or indirectly, from the Data- class

B. It must belong to a class group

C. It should correspond to a distinct entity in the data model

D. It can inherit rules other than properties

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

An existing, released application applies a rule instance to a specific work type. You wish to apply this rule to a less-specialized class in the next release of the application. Select the best method to accomplish this task. (Choose One)

A. Unlock any RuleSet version that contains the rule instance, and delete each instance applied to the work type. Then, create a new instance applied to the less-specific class

B. Create two new instances of the rulE. one applied to the work type, with availability set to Blocked, and the other applied to the less-specific class with availability set to Yes

C. Create two new instances of the rulE. one applied to the work type and saved to a RuleSet that end-users cannot access, and the other applied to the less-specific class and saved to a RuleSet that end users can access

D. Create two new instances of the rulE. one applied to the work type, with availability set to Withdrawn, and the other applied to the less-specific class with availability set to Yes

E. Use a decision table or decision tree to call the less-specialized instance when the user runs the most-recent version of the application

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

See the following two screenshots; note how they are different based on the value of Marital Status. What underlying rule can be used to implement this user experience behavior?

A. Declare Expression

B. Decision Tree

C. When rule

D. Decision Table

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Validate rules are referenced in which of the following rule types to validate the properties displayed on the user interface?

A. Flow

B. Hamess

C. Flow Action

D. Section

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Declarative Pages operate within which of the following scopes? (Choose Three)

A. Thread

B. Single

C. Node

D. Server

E. Operator

F. Requestor

Correct Answer: ACF


Question 8:

It is possible for you to notify a customer (work party) if a milestone is missed, using a service level.

A. True.

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

What is the key difference between BPM application development and traditional application development? (Choose One)

A. A BPM application is process-centric (all elements of the application depend upon the process)

B. In a BPM application, elements of the application ?such as UI, logic, and data ?cannot be modular

C. A traditional application cannot be used in an N-tier environment

D. A traditional application allows for direct execution of the business process, while a BPM application does not

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

In what ways can an end user add, remove, or update filters on a report? (Choose Three)

A. Right-click on a row of data and select “Edit Filter Conditions…”

B. Right-click on a column heading and select “Advanced Filtering”

C. Right-click on any element in a chart to display the Filter Wizard

D. Click the Advanced Filtering icon in the command ribbon

E. Click any element in the list of filters that appears in the report header

F. Click the report title and select “Edit Filter Conditions…” from the menu

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 11:

Diagram:

The following diagram is an example of which tool? (Choose One)

A. Application Explorer

B. Class Inheritance Diagram

C. Class Structure Viewer

D. Application Profile Wizard

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Pega Guardrails are guidance for following best practices and have little to no Impact on application performance.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Select the true statement about optional actions added to a case stage

A. Optional actions can be invoked only once in any process applicable in that stage

B. Optional actions can be added in the case stage will progress the flow to the next step

C. Optional actions can be invoked in any process applicable in that stage

D. Optional antions can be invoked on all processes that starts along with the step

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

A stage ca be configured as __________(Choose Two)

A. A starter stage

B. An exception stage

C. A resolution stage

D. An alternate stage

Correct Answer: CD


Question 15:

Which of the following are true about classes in PRPC? (Choose Two)

A. Classes represent the applicability of rules

B. Rules can only be inherited from a class designated as a prerequisite class

C. Classes can inherit rules from other classes

D. Classes can be versioned using a set of three two-digit numbers, such as 01-05-17

Correct Answer: AC


[Newest Version] Easily Pass CPSA-FL Exam with Geekcert Updated Real ISQI CPSA-FL Exam Materials

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Newest CPSA-FL pdf dumps exam! Get yourself well prepared for the ISQI ISAQB Certified Professional For Software Architecture (CPSA) Newest CPSA-FL pdf ISAQB Certified Professional for Software Architecture – Foundation Level (CPSA-FL) exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We Geekcert, provides the most update exam PDF and VCEs. With Geekcert latest exam Q and As, you’ll pass the ISAQB Certified Professional For Software Architecture (CPSA) Jan 15,2022 Newest CPSA-FL vce ISAQB Certified Professional for Software Architecture – Foundation Level (CPSA-FL) exam in an easy way

Geekcert – our goal is to help all candidates pass their CPSA-FL exams and get their certifications in their first attempt. money back guarantee. Geekcert – best way to guarantee your CPSA-FL certification and exam success! Geekcert | lead to pass CPSA-FL certification exams. first test, first pass! Geekcert certification CPSA-FL practice exams.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest CPSA-FL preparation materials from ISQI Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/cpsa-fl.html

The following are the CPSA-FL free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our CPSA-FL dumps.Although questions are from CPSA-FL free dumps, the validity and accuracy of the CPSA-FL dumps are absolutely guaranteed.

Question 1:

What are the four key terms in common definitions of software architecture? (Choose four.)

A. Source code

B. Building Blocks

C. Functionality

D. Relationships

E. Components

F. Requirements

G. Interfaces

Correct Answer: BDEF

Reference: http://www.michael-richardson.com/processes/rup_for_sqa/core.base_rup/guidances/concepts/software_architecture_4269A354.html


Question 2:

Name the three most important fields of template-based architecture documentation. (Choose three.)

A. To describe module structures (white boxes)

B. To describe individual architectural modules and their external interfaces (black boxes)

C. To use copyright templates for a consistent description of project/system meta information within documents and source codes

D. To use a standardized document structure

E. To reuse code and test case templates

Correct Answer: ABD

Reference: https://buildmedia.readthedocs.org/media/pdf/roboy-sw-documentation-template/latest/roboy-sw-documentation-template.pdf


Question 3:

Which two of the following statements about quality characteristics are most accurate? (Choose two.)

A. Flexibility reduces testability

B. Increased flexibility improves robustness

C. Simplicity increases comprehensibility

D. Increased efficiency results in reduced performance

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

Which of the following statements regarding iterative and incremental design are correct? Please name the three statements that fit the best. (Choose three.)

A. Iterations help to deal with uncertainties.

B. The iterative approach helps to detect design problems at an earlier stage.

C. If the incremental approach is used, risks are detected at a later stage.

D. Iterative design leads to project delays.

E. If iterative design is used; the customer will be less involved.

F. If incremental design is used; key functionality is considered as early as possible.

Correct Answer: ABF


Question 5:

Which four of the following items can be building blocks of a software architecture? (Choose four.)

A. an algorithm

B. a component

C. a test harness

D. a class

E. a processor

F. a method/procedure/function/operation

G. a local variable

H. a package

Correct Answer: ABDH


Question 6:

Which two of the following requirements are examples of quality requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Up to 40,000 requests per day

B. User should be able to select the sort order freely.

C. Spelling is corrected automatically.

D. Failure rate is less than 0.1%.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 7:

In a customer project the architecture shall be based on components. The requirements have not been fully determined yet. Taking this constraint into account, which three properties of the components developed by you will you pay particular attention to? (Choose three.)

A. meaningful component names

B. weak coupling

C. strong cohesion

D. open for extension

E. small component size

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 8:

Which of the following statements are covered by the term \’coupling\’? (Choose two.)

A. A building block uses an interface of another building block.

B. Two building blocks offer operations with the same name.

C. A building block only contains operations that belong together logically.

D. A building block uses internal data structures of another building block.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 9:

You want to demonstrate to colleagues that certain building blocks are suitable for the implementation of a use-case scenario. Which of the following UML diagrams is best suited for this?

A. Use-case diagram

B. Sequence diagram

C. Activity diagram

D. Class diagram

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.lucidchart.com/pages/uml-use-case-diagram


Question 10:

Which three artifacts does the assessment team create when conducting an ATAM evaluation? (Choose three.)

A. Architecture-specific chapters of the quality management manual

B. The concrete quality tree

C. Description of quality scenarios

D. A quality model

E. Architecture documentation

F. Selection of the quality attributes of the architectural building blocks

G. List of the architectural risks

Correct Answer: CEG


Question 11:

What do you have to take into account when designing external interfaces? (Choose three.)

A. Volatility of neighbouring systems

B. Adequate usage of the broker pattern

C. Protocols enforced by neighbouring systems

D. Expected amount of parallel calls

E. Ease of implementation

F. Effect on the coupling in the building block view

Correct Answer: CEF


Question 12:

Select the two most appropriate methods for evaluating the reliability of a software system. (Choose two.)

A. Determining the number of `lines of code\’

B. Measurement of `Mean-Time-between-Failure\’

C. Execution of performance tests

D. Determination of the cyclomatic complexity

E. Conducting an ATAM evaluation

Correct Answer: BC


Question 13:

Which of the following statements about (crosscutting) concepts are most appropriate? (Select four.)

A. The definition of appropriate concepts ensures the conceptual integrity of the architecture.

B. Concepts are a means to increase consistency.

C. For each quality goal there should be an explicitly documented concept.

D. Uniform exception handling is most easily achieved when architects agree with developers upon a suitable concept prior to implementation.

E. A concept might be implemented by a single building block.

F. Uniform usage of concepts reduces coupling between building blocks.

G. A concept can define constraints for the implementation of many building blocks.

Correct Answer: ABDG


Question 14:

Choose the most desirable characteristics of interfaces. (Choose three.)

A. Easy to extend

B. Geared towards the capabilities of the provider

C. Clear descriptions of assertions and prerequisites

D. As few parameters as possible

E. Scalable to many consumers

F. Remotely callable

G. Hard to misuse

Correct Answer: BCF


Question 15:

HOTSPOT

How does management and architects work together? Decide which statements are true and which are false. (Assign all answers.)

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


[PDF and VCE] Free Geekcert Amazon DBS-C01 PDF Real Exam Questions and Answers Free Download

As a leading IT exam study material provider, Geekcert not only provides you the Newest DBS-C01 free download exam questions and answers but also the most comprehensive knowledge of the whole AWS Certified Specialty Hotest DBS-C01 vce dumps AWS Certified Database – Specialty (DBS-C01) certifications. We provide our users with the most accurate Latest DBS-C01 vce AWS Certified Database – Specialty (DBS-C01) study material about the AWS Certified Specialty Hotest DBS-C01 practice exam and the guarantee of pass. We assist you to get well prepared for AWS Certified Specialty Jan 15,2022 Newest DBS-C01 exam questions certification which is regarded valuable the IT sector.

Geekcert – professional DBS-C01 certification exam dumps provider. we do all things to help with your exams. Geekcert – help you to get your DBS-C01 certification more easily. save your time and money! high pass rate! Geekcert – DBS-C01 certification with money back assurance. Geekcert DBS-C01 certification exam portal.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest DBS-C01 preparation materials from Amazon Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/aws-certified-database-specialty.html

The following are the DBS-C01 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our DBS-C01 dumps.These questions are from DBS-C01 free dumps. All questions in DBS-C01 dumps are from the latest DBS-C01 real exams.

Question 1:

A company has deployed an e-commerce web application in a new AWS account. An Amazon RDS for MySQL Multi-AZ DB instance is part of this deployment with a database-1.xxxxxxxxxxxx.us-east- 1.rds.amazonaws.com endpoint listening on port 3306. The company\’s Database Specialist is able to log in to MySQL and run queries from the bastion host using these details.

When users try to utilize the application hosted in the AWS account, they are presented with a generic error message. The application servers are logging a “could not connect to server: Connection times out” error message to Amazon CloudWatch Logs.

What is the cause of this error?

A. The user name and password the application is using are incorrect.

B. The security group assigned to the application servers does not have the necessary rules to allow inbound connections from the DB instance.

C. The security group assigned to the DB instance does not have the necessary rules to allow inbound connections from the application servers.

D. The user name and password are correct, but the user is not authorized to use the DB instance.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://forums.aws.amazon.com/thread.jspa?threadID=129700


Question 2:

An AWS CloudFormation stack that included an Amazon RDS DB instance was accidentally deleted and recent data was lost. A Database Specialist needs to add RDS settings to the CloudFormation template to reduce the chance of accidental instance data loss in the future.

Which settings will meet this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Set DeletionProtection to True

B. Set MultiAZ to True

C. Set TerminationProtection to True

D. Set DeleteAutomatedBackups to False

E. Set DeletionPolicy to Delete

F. Set DeletionPolicy to Retain

Correct Answer: ACF

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSCloudFormation/latest/UserGuide/aws-attribute- deletionpolicy.html https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/cloudformation-accidental-updates/


Question 3:

A Database Specialist is troubleshooting an application connection failure on an Amazon Aurora DB cluster with multiple Aurora Replicas that had been running with no issues for the past 2 months. The connection failure lasted for 5 minutes and corrected itself after that. The Database Specialist reviewed the Amazon RDS events and determined a failover event occurred at that time. The failover process took around 15 seconds to complete.

What is the MOST likely cause of the 5-minute connection outage?

A. After a database crash, Aurora needed to replay the redo log from the last database checkpoint

B. The client-side application is caching the DNS data and its TTL is set too high

C. After failover, the Aurora DB cluster needs time to warm up before accepting client connections

D. There were no active Aurora Replicas in the Aurora DB cluster

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A company is deploying a solution in Amazon Aurora by migrating from an on-premises system. The IT department has established an AWS Direct Connect link from the company\’s data center. The company\’s Database Specialist has selected the option to require SSL/TLS for connectivity to prevent plaintext data from being set over the network. The migration appears to be working successfully, and the data can be queried from a desktop machine.

Two Data Analysts have been asked to query and validate the data in the new Aurora DB cluster. Both Analysts are unable to connect to Aurora. Their user names and passwords have been verified as valid and the Database Specialist can connect to the DB cluster using their accounts. The Database Specialist also verified that the security group configuration allows network from all corporate IP addresses.

What should the Database Specialist do to correct the Data Analysts\’ inability to connect?

A. Restart the DB cluster to apply the SSL change.

B. Instruct the Data Analysts to download the root certificate and use the SSL certificate on the connection string to connect.

C. Add explicit mappings between the Data Analysts\’ IP addresses and the instance in the security group assigned to the DB cluster.

D. Modify the Data Analysts\’ local client firewall to allow network traffic to AWS.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A company is concerned about the cost of a large-scale, transactional application using Amazon DynamoDB that only needs to store data for 2 days before it is deleted. In looking at the tables, a Database Specialist notices that much of the data is months old, and goes back to when the application was first deployed.

What can the Database Specialist do to reduce the overall cost?

A. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and create an AWS Glue transformation to delete entries more than 2 days old.

B. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and enable DynamoDB Streams on each table.

C. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and enable time to live (TTL) on each table.

D. Create an Amazon CloudWatch Events event to export the data to Amazon S3 daily using AWS Data Pipeline and then truncate the Amazon DynamoDB table.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A company has an on-premises system that tracks various database operations that occur over the lifetime of a database, including database shutdown, deletion, creation, and backup.

The company recently moved two databases to Amazon RDS and is looking at a solution that would satisfy these requirements. The data could be used by other systems within the company.

Which solution will meet these requirements with minimal effort?

A. Create an Amazon Cloudwatch Events rule with the operations that need to be tracked on Amazon RDS. Create an AWS Lambda function to act on these rules and write the output to the tracking systems.

B. Create an AWS Lambda function to trigger on AWS CloudTrail API calls. Filter on specific RDS API calls and write the output to the tracking systems.

C. Create RDS event subscriptions. Have the tracking systems subscribe to specific RDS event system notifications.

D. Write RDS logs to Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose. Create an AWS Lambda function to act on these rules and write the output to the tracking systems.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

A clothing company uses a custom ecommerce application and a PostgreSQL database to sell clothes to thousands of users from multiple countries. The company is migrating its application and database from its on-premises data center to the AWS Cloud. The company has selected Amazon EC2 for the application and Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL for the database. The company requires database passwords to be changed every 60 days. A Database Specialist needs to ensure that the credentials used by the web application to connect to the database are managed securely.

Which approach should the Database Specialist take to securely manage the database credentials?

A. Store the credentials in a text file in an Amazon S3 bucket. Restrict permissions on the bucket to the IAM role associated with the instance profile only. Modify the application to download the text file and retrieve the credentials on start up. Update the text file every 60 days.

B. Configure IAM database authentication for the application to connect to the database. Create an IAM user and map it to a separate database user for each ecommerce user. Require users to update their passwords every 60 days.

C. Store the credentials in AWS Secrets Manager. Restrict permissions on the secret to only the IAM role associated with the instance profile. Modify the application to retrieve the credentials from Secrets Manager on start up. Configure the rotation interval to 60 days.

D. Store the credentials in an encrypted text file in the application AMI. Use AWS KMS to store the key for decrypting the text file. Modify the application to decrypt the text file and retrieve the credentials on start up. Update the text file and publish a new AMI every 60 days.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

A financial services company is developing a shared data service that supports different applications from throughout the company. A Database Specialist designed a solution to leverage Amazon ElastiCache for Redis with cluster mode enabled to enhance performance and scalability. The cluster is configured to listen on port 6379.

Which combination of steps should the Database Specialist take to secure the cache data and protect it from unauthorized access? (Choose three.)

A. Enable in-transit and at-rest encryption on the ElastiCache cluster.

B. Ensure that Amazon CloudWatch metrics are configured in the ElastiCache cluster.

C. Ensure the security group for the ElastiCache cluster allows all inbound traffic from itself and inbound traffic on TCP port 6379 from trusted clients only.

D. Create an IAM policy to allow the application service roles to access all ElastiCache API actions.

E. Ensure the security group for the ElastiCache clients authorize inbound TCP port 6379 and port 22 traffic from the trusted ElastiCache cluster\’s security group.

F. Ensure the cluster is created with the auth-token parameter and that the parameter is used in all subsequent commands.

Correct Answer: ABE

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/getting-started/tutorials/setting-up-a-redis-cluster-with-amazon- elasticache/


Question 9:

A company is running an Amazon RDS for PostgeSQL DB instance and wants to migrate it to an Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster. The current database is 1 TB in size. The migration needs to have minimal downtime.

What is the FASTEST way to accomplish this?

A. Create an Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster. Set up replication from the source RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance using AWS DMS to the target DB cluster.

B. Use the pg_dump and pg_restore utilities to extract and restore the RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance to the Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster.

C. Create a database snapshot of the RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance and use this snapshot to create the Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster.

D. Migrate data from the RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance to an Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster using an Aurora Replica. Promote the replica during the cutover.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

A Database Specialist is migrating a 2 TB Amazon RDS for Oracle DB instance to an RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance using AWS DMS. The source RDS Oracle DB instance is in a VPC in the us-east-1 Region. The target RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance is in a VPC in the use-west-2 Region.

Where should the AWS DMS replication instance be placed for the MOST optimal performance?

A. In the same Region and VPC of the source DB instance

B. In the same Region and VPC as the target DB instance

C. In the same VPC and Availability Zone as the target DB instance

D. In the same VPC and Availability Zone as the source DB instance

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

The Development team recently executed a database script containing several data definition language (DDL) and data manipulation language (DML) statements on an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster. The release accidentally deleted

thousands of rows from an important table and broke some application functionality. This was discovered 4 hours after the release. Upon investigation, a Database Specialist tracked the issue to a DELETE command in the script with an

incorrect WHERE clause filtering the wrong set of rows.

The Aurora DB cluster has Backtrack enabled with an 8-hour backtrack window. The Database Administrator also took a manual snapshot of the DB cluster before the release started. The database needs to be returned to the correct state as

quickly as possible to resume full application functionality.

Data loss must be minimal.

How can the Database Specialist accomplish this?

A. Quickly rewind the DB cluster to a point in time before the release using Backtrack.

B. Perform a point-in-time recovery (PITR) of the DB cluster to a time before the release and copy the deleted rows from the restored database to the original database.

C. Restore the DB cluster using the manual backup snapshot created before the release and change the application configuration settings to point to the new DB cluster.

D. Create a clone of the DB cluster with Backtrack enabled. Rewind the cloned cluster to a point in time before the release. Copy deleted rows from the clone to the original database.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

A company is load testing its three-tier production web application deployed with an AWS CloudFormation template on AWS. The Application team is making changes to deploy additional Amazon EC2 and AWS Lambda resources to expand

the load testing capacity. A Database Specialist wants to ensure that the changes made by the Application team will not change the Amazon RDS database resources already deployed.

Which combination of steps would allow the Database Specialist to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. Review the stack drift before modifying the template

B. Create and review a change set before applying it

C. Export the database resources as stack outputs

D. Define the database resources in a nested stack

E. Set a stack policy for the database resources

Correct Answer: AD


Question 13:

A manufacturing company\’s website uses an Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster.

Which configurations will result in the LEAST application downtime during a failover? (Choose three.)

A. Use the provided read and write Aurora endpoints to establish a connection to the Aurora DB cluster.

B. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alert triggering a restore in another Availability Zone when the primary Aurora DB cluster is unreachable.

C. Edit and enable Aurora DB cluster cache management in parameter groups.

D. Set TCP keepalive parameters to a high value.

E. Set JDBC connection string timeout variables to a low value.

F. Set Java DNS caching timeouts to a high value.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 14:

A company is hosting critical business data in an Amazon Redshift cluster. Due to the sensitive nature of the data, the cluster is encrypted at rest using AWS KMS. As a part of disaster recovery requirements, the company needs to copy the Amazon Redshift snapshots to another Region.

Which steps should be taken in the AWS Management Console to meet the disaster recovery requirements?

A. Create a new KMS customer master key in the source Region. Switch to the destination Region, enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region snapshots, and use the KMS key of the source Region.

B. Create a new IAM role with access to the KMS key. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region replication using the new IAM role, and use the KMS key of the source Region.

C. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region snapshots in the source Region, and create a snapshot copy grant and use a KMS key in the destination Region.

D. Create a new KMS customer master key in the destination Region and create a new IAM role with access to the new KMS key. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region replication in the source Region and use the KMS key of the destination Region.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/redshift/latest/mgmt/working-with-snapshots.html


Question 15:

A company has a production Amazon Aurora Db cluster that serves both online transaction processing (OLTP) transactions and compute-intensive reports. The reports run for 10% of the total cluster uptime while the OLTP transactions run all

the time. The company has benchmarked its workload and determined that a six-node Aurora DB cluster is appropriate for the peak workload. The company is now looking at cutting costs for this DB cluster, but needs to have a sufficient

number of nodes in the cluster to support the workload at different times. The workload has not changed since the previous benchmarking exercise.

How can a Database Specialist address these requirements with minimal user involvement?

A. Split up the DB cluster into two different clusters: one for OLTP and the other for reporting. Monitor and set up replication between the two clusters to keep data consistent.

B. Review all evaluate the peak combined workload. Ensure that utilization of the DB cluster node is at an acceptable level. Adjust the number of instances, if necessary.

C. Use the stop cluster functionality to stop all the nodes of the DB cluster during times of minimal workload. The cluster can be restarted again depending on the workload at the time.

D. Set up automatic scaling on the DB cluster. This will allow the number of reader nodes to adjust automatically to the reporting workload, when needed.

Correct Answer: D


[PDF and VCE] Geekcert Latest Symantec 250-430 Exam Practice Materials Free Downloading

There is no need to worry when you are suffering the difficult time in the Symantec Certified Specialist Latest 250-430 free download exam preparation, Geekcert will assist you to pass the Symantec Certified Specialist Newest 250-430 vce exam with latest update Symantec Certified Specialist Newest 250-430 practice Administration of Blue Coat ProxySG 6.6 PDF and VCE dumps. Geekcert has the most comprehensive Symantec exam preparation materials, covering each and every aspect of Symantec Certified Specialist Jan 14,2022 Hotest 250-430 exam questions Administration of Blue Coat ProxySG 6.6 exam curriculum. We ensure you 100% success in Symantec Certified Specialist Newest 250-430 practice exam.

latest 250-430 exam dumps. get your certification easily- Geekcert. the Geekcert 250-430exam | pass the 250-430 exam on your first try! Geekcert – 250-430 certification exams – original questions and answers – success guaranteed. free and latest Geekcert exam questions | all Geekcert latest microsoft, vmware, comptia, cisco,hp ,citrix and some other hot exams practice tests and questions and answers free download!

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 250-430 preparation materials from Symantec Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/250-430.html

The following are the 250-430 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 250-430 dumps.These questions are from 250-430 free dumps. All questions in 250-430 dumps are from the latest 250-430 real exams.

Question 1:

Which type of authentication realm does not require communication with an external authentication server?

A. IWA realm

B. Kerberos realm

C. Local realm

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

From the connection information section of a policy trace, you can see:

A. The time and date

B. The source IP address

C. All of these answers

D. The original HTTP GET request

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

On the ProxySG, can more than one authentication realm be active at any given time?

A. No

B. Yes

C. Only in explicit mode

D. Only in transparent mode

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

How does the Management Console perform commands on the ProxySG?

A. None of these answers

B. By using proprietary APIs to perform function calls on the ProxySG

C. By using Content Policy Language to control the ProxySG

D. By generating the appropriate CLI commands and executing them

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

By default, HTTP traffic that is logged is recorded to which log facility?

A. bcreportermain_v1

B. main

C. elf

D. http

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://wikileaks.org/spyfiles/files/0/241_BLUECOAT-SGOS_CMG_5.1.4_9.pdf (p.7)


Question 6:

What stops further rule processing in a layer?

A. When the final rule on the layer is reached

B. When two rules match

C. When a later rule contradicts an earlier rule

D. The first rule in the layer that matches

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://origin-symwisedownload.symantec.com/resources/webguides/sgos/policy/Learn/aboutlayerandruleeval/layerguards.htm


Question 7:

When the ProxySG uses a virtual URL for user authentication, what must the virtual URL point to?

A. The IP address of the origin content server

B. A hostname that the user agent can DNS-resolve to an IP address

C. None of these answers

D. The IP address of the ProxySG

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.TECH243088.html


Question 8:

When does the ProxySG establish an Schannel?

A. When a client request is first received

B. When the client sends an NTLM type 2 message to ProxySG

C. When IWA authentication fails

D. When the client sends an NTLM type 3 message to the ProxySG

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which of the following is not a VPM trigger object?

A. Time

B. Source

C. Destination

D. Service

E. Action

Correct Answer: E


Question 10:

What does the SSL Proxy do by default?

A. Blocks encrypted traffic

B. Scans traffic for malware

C. Tunnels all HTTPS traffic

D. Intercepts all HTTPS traffic

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://wikileaks.org/spyfiles/files/0/219_BLUECOAT-SGOS_5.3.x_SSL_Proxy_Reference_Guide.pdf


Question 11:

Why is authentication using Basic credentials typically used over HTTPS?

A. Username and password are base-64 encoded

B. No session identifier is required

C. No cookies are required

D. No other credentials are compatible with HTTPS

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

What does each proxy service define? (Choose two.)

A. ProxySG SGOS version

B. Proxy type to use to process traffic

C. Attributes

D. Policy

Correct Answer: BC


Question 13:

Which of the following are always included in both the request and response headers?

A. Information relevant to the connection between the client and the server

B. DNS query

C. ICAP version number

D. Cipher suite

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Does the policy trace flag malfunctioning policy?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What needs to be selected for the Explicit HTTP service to be able to hand off SSL traffic?

A. Port 443

B. Enable ADN

C. Early Intercept

D. Detect Protocol

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=1andcad=rjaanduact=8andved=0ahUKEwjtw_3pyvPbAhUHUhQKHVfIC8sQFggmMAAandurl=https://origin-symwisedownload.symantec.com/resources /webguides/proxysg/security_first_steps/Content/PDFs/Control_HTTPS.pdfandusg=AOvVaw2SbHIePGOpEC8szeb-pNqx


[Newest Version] Easily Pass ICYB Exam with Geekcert Updated Real IASSC ICYB Exam Materials

Don’t worry about how to get yourself well prepared your Lean Six Sigma Yellow Belt Jan 15,2022 Newest ICYB study guide exam! Geekcert will work you out of your Lean Six Sigma Yellow Belt Hotest ICYB study guide exam with the latest updated Newest ICYB practice IASSC Certified Lean Six Sigma Yellow Belt PDF and VCE dumps. Geekcert provides the latest real IASSC Lean Six Sigma Yellow Belt Latest ICYB free download exam preparation material, covering every aspect of Latest ICYB practice exam curriculum.

Geekcert – leader of ICYB certifications, latest dumps, guaranteed pass. Geekcert – latest update source for all ICYB certification exams. Geekcert – leading source of ICYB certification exam learning/practice. Geekcert – provide the latest ICYB real exam practice questions and answers. Geekcert 100% accurate exam brain dumps with latest update. download the free ICYB demo to check first.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest ICYB preparation materials from IASSC Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/ICYB.html

The following are the ICYB free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our ICYB dumps.The following questions and answers are from the latest ICYB free dumps. It will help you understand the validity of the latest ICYB dumps.

Question 1:

When a process has proven itself to function at a Six Sigma level this means there are less than ________ defects per million opportunities.

A. 1.7

B. 2.6

C. 3.4

D. 10

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Six Sigma refers to a process whose output has at least 95% of its data points within 6 Standard Deviations from the Mean.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Training cost is $3,000 and a project required an initial investment of $12,000. If the project yields monthly savings of $1,800 beginning after 3 months, what is the payback period in months (before money costs and taxes)?

A. 4.17

B. 8.33

C. 11.33

D. 28.28

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

The ROI for a project is a measurement metric that stands for Return on Investment and is one of the methods used to measure the success of a Lean Six Sigma project.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

The DMAIC approach to problem solving stands for Define, __________, Analyze, Improve and Control.

A. Manage

B. Measure

C. Memorize

D. Manipulate

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Voice of the Customer is a Lean Six Sigma technique to determine the ___________ attributes of a product or service.

A. Desirable

B. Beneficial

C. Critical-to-Quality

D. Preferred

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Benefits and working conditions would be primarily the concern of which of the following?

A. Voice of the Customer

B. Voice of the Employee

C. Voice of the Business

D. Voice of the Process

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

In the expression Y = f(Xn) Y, the output, is the ___________ variable and Xn, the inputs, are the __________ variables.

A. Independent, dependent

B. Individual, multiple

C. Sole, multiple

D. Dependent, independent

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

When we assess the Voice of the Customer we are attempting to determine the gaps in our processes between “what is” and __________________.

A. “What isn\’t”

B. “What will make money”

C. “What will cost less”

D. “What should be”

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which of the following would likely not be a CTQ (Critical-to-Quality) for the purchase of a product?

A. Functionality

B. Durability

C. Dependability

D. None

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

The Pareto Chart is a tool that displays data that typically follows what ratio?

A. 70:30

B. 80:20

C. 90:10

D. 95:5

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Al bought a handheld GPS from his local electronics store. When he entered an address it would not function. For the manufacturer of the GPS this would be categorized as what type of cost?

A. Internal Failure Cost

B. Prevention Cost

C. External Failure Cost

D. Appraisal Cost

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which of the following is a method of expressing the concept that the outputs of a process are a function of all the inputs to the process?

A. Y = f(Xn)

B. RTY > 90%

C. Yield = Effort

D. Flow = Demand

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

When we create a Process Map and want to depict an action step in the process we would use the ____________ symbol.

A. Diamond

B. Circle

C. Ellipse

D. Rectangle

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

A Belt has determined that the loan application does not need to be reviewed by accounting thereby improving the number of applications a loan processer can handle. According to Cost of Poor Quality (COPQ) definitions RTY improvement would be considered _______________.

A. Downsizing savings

B. Hard savings

C. Soft savings

D. Median savings

Correct Answer: B


Geekcert Microsoft 70-743 the Most Up to Date VCE And PDF Instant Download

Do not worry about that if you are stuck in the MCSA Hotest 70-743 vce exam difficulties, Geekcert will assist you all your way through the MCSA Latest 70-743 pdf dumps Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2016 exam with the most update MCSA Jan 15,2022 Newest 70-743 QAs PDF and VCE dumps. Geekcert exam Latest 70-743 QAs preparation materials are the most comprehensive material, covering every key knowledge of Newest 70-743 vce Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2016 exam.

70-743 certification – 70-743 certifications. get your 70-743 certification easily. Geekcert expert team is ready to help you. latest Geekcert 70-743 exam dumps pdf and vce free download. 70-743 exam academy – free online 70-743 exam study guide resource for 70-743 associate specialty exams. get your 70-743 certification easily. Geekcert expert team is ready to help you.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 70-743 preparation materials from Microsoft Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/70-743.html

The following are the 70-743 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 70-743 dumps.70-743 free dumps are questions from the latest full 70-743 dumps. Check 70-743 free questions to get a better understanding of 70-743 exams.

Question 1:

Note: This question is part of a series of a questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions,

while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Contoso.com has the following configuration.

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.

You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.

Solution: You upgrade a domain controller to Windows Server 2016.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

New installations of AD FS 2016 require the Active Directory 2016 schema (minimum version 85). Upgrading a domain controller will upgrade the schema. Note: upgrading the schema is not the same as upgrading the domain for forest functional level. Upgrading the functional level is not required.


Question 2:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions,

while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Contoso.com has the following configuration:

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.

You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.

Solution: You run adprep.exe from the Windows Server 2016 installation media.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

New installations of AD FS 2016 require the Active Directory 2016 schema (minimum version 85). You can upgrade the schema by running adprep.exe.


Question 3:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.

You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace.

Solution: From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Add-DnsServertrustAnchor cmdlet.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

The Add-DnsServerTrustAnchor command adds a trust anchor to a DNS server. A trust anchor (or trust “point”) is a public cryptographic key for a signed zone. Trust anchors must be configured on every non-authoritative DNS server that will attempt to validate DNS data. Trust Anchors have no direct relation to DSSEC validation.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/dnsserver/add-dnsservertrustanchor?view=winserver2012-ps https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn593672(v=ws.11).aspx https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/dns/deploy/apply-filters-on-dns-queries


Question 4:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.

You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace.

Solution: From a Group Policy object (GPO) in the domain, you add a rule to the Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT).

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

The NRPT stores configurations and settings that are used to deploy DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC), and also stores information related to DirectAccess, a remote access technology.

Note: The Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT) is a new feature available in Windows Server 2008 R2. The NRPT is a table that contains rules you can configure to specify DNS settings or special behavior for names or namespaces. When performing DNS name resolution, the DNS Client service checks the NRPT before sending a DNS query. If a DNS query or response matches an entry in the NRPT, it is handled according to settings in the policy. Queries and responses that do not match an NRPT entry are processed normally.

References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee649207(v=ws.10).aspx https://www.microsoftpressstore.com/articles/article.aspx?p=2756482


Question 5:

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to configure Server1 as a multitenant RAS Gateway. What should you install on Server1?

A. the Network Controller server role

B. the Remote Access server role

C. the Data Center Bridging feature

D. the Network Policy and Access Services server role

Correct Answer: B

RAS Gateway – Multitenant. You can deploy RAS Gateway as a multitenant, software-based edge gateway and router when you are using Hyper-V Network Virtualization or you have VM networks deployed with virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs). With the RAS Gateway, Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Enterprises can enable datacenter and cloud network traffic routing between virtual and physical networks, including the Internet. With the RAS Gateway, your tenants can use point-so-site VPN connections to access their VM network resources in the datacenter from anywhere. You can also provide tenants with site-to-site VPN connections between their remote sites and your CSP datacenter. In addition, you can configure the RAS Gateway with BGP for dynamic routing, and you can enable Network Address Translation (NAT) to provide Internet access for VMs on VM networks.

References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/networking/remote-access/remote-access


Question 6:

You have an Active Directory domain that contains several Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2016.

You plan to deploy network virtualization and to centrally manage Datacenter Firewall policies.

Which component must you install for the planned deployment?

A. the Routing role service

B. the Canary Network Diagnostics feature

C. the Network Controller server role

D. the Data Center Bridging feature

Correct Answer: C

Using Windows PowerShell, the REST API, or a management application, you can use Network Controller to manage the following physical and virtual network infrastructure:

*

Datacenter Firewall This Network Controller feature allows you to configure and manage allow/deny firewall Access Control rules for your workload VMs for both East/West and North/South network traffic in your datacenter. The firewall rules are plumbed in the vSwitch port of workload VMs, and so they are distributed across your workload in the datacenter. Using the Northbound API, you can define the firewall rules for both incoming and outgoing traffic from the workload VM. You can also configure each firewall rule to log the traffic that was allowed or denied by the rule.

*

Hyper-V VMs and virtual switches

*

Remote Access Service (RAS) Multitenant Gateways, Virtual Gateways, and gateway pools

*

Load Balancers

References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn859239.aspx

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/sdn/technologies/network-controller/network-controller


Question 7:

You have a Nano Server named Nano1.

You deploy several containers to Nano1 that use an image named Image1.

You need to deploy a new container to Nano1 that uses Image1.

What should you run?

A. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet

B. the docker run command

C. the docker load command

D. the Install-NanoServerPackage cmdlet

Correct Answer: B

When an operator executes docker run, the container process that runs is isolated in that it has its own file system, its own networking, and its own isolated process tree separate from the host. The basic docker run command takes this form:

$ docker run [OPTIONS] IMAGE[:TAG|@DIGEST] [COMMAND] [ARG…]


Question 8:

You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.

Server1 has a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is configured to run the Docker daemon.

On VM1, you have a container network that uses transparent mode.

You need to ensure that containers that run on VM1 can obtain IP addresses from DHCP.

What should you do?

A. On VM1, run docker network connect.

B. On Server1, run docker network connect.

C. On VM1, run Get-VMNetworkAdapter 璙MName VM1 | Set-VMNetworkAdapter 璏acAddressSpoofing On.

D. On Server1, run Get-VMNetworkAdapter 璙MName VM1 | Set-VMNetworkAdapter ?MacAddressSpoofing On.

Correct Answer: D

If the container host is virtualized, and you wish to use DHCP for IP assignment, you must enable MACAddressSpoofing.

PS C:\> Get-VMNetworkAdapter -VMName ContainerHostVM | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -MacAddressSpoofing On

The command needs to be run on the Hyper-V host.


Question 9:

You have a failover cluster named Cluster1.

A virtual machine named VM1 is a highly available virtual machine that runs on Cluster1. A custom application named App1 runs on VM1.

You need to configure monitoring on VM1. If App1 adds an error entry to the Application event log, VM1 should be automatically rebooted and moved to another cluster node.

Which tool should you use?

A. Resource Monitor

B. Failover Cluster Manager

C. Server Manager

D. Hyper-V Manager

Correct Answer: B

Do you have a large number of virtualized workloads in your cluster? Have you been looking for a solution that allows you to detect if any of the virtualized workloads in your cluster are behaving abnormally? Would you like the cluster service to take recovery actions when these workloads are in an unhealthy state? In Windows Server 2012/2016, there is a great new feature, in Failover Clustering called “VM Monitoring”, which does exactly that ?it allows you monitor the health state of applications that are running within a virtual machine and then reports that to the host level so that it can take recovery actions.

VM Monitoring can be easily configured using the Failover Cluster Manager through the following steps:

Right click on the Virtual Machine role on which you want to configure monitoring

Select “More Actions” and then the “Configure Monitoring” options

You will then see a list of services that can be configured for monitoring using the Failover Cluster Manager.

References: https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/clustering/2012/04/18/how-to-configure-vm-monitoring-in-windows-server-2012/


Question 10:

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.

The disk configuration for Server1 is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You add Server1 to a cluster.

You need to ensure that you can use Disk 1 for Storage Spaces Direct.

What should you do first?

A. Set Disk 1 to offline.

B. Convert Partition (E:) to ReFS.

C. Convert Disk 1 to a dynamic disk.

D. Delete Partition (E:).

Correct Answer: D

The disks used in Storage Spaces Direct cannot contain existing partitions.


Question 11:

Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains two Hyper-V hosts.

You plan to perform live migrations between the hosts.

You need to ensure that the live migration traffic is authenticated by using Kerberos.

What should you do first?

A. From Server Manager, install the Host Guardian Service server role on a domain controller.

B. From Active Directory Users and Computers, add the computer accounts for both servers to the Cryptographic Operators group.

C. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the Delegation properties of the computer accounts for both servers.

D. From Server Manager, install the Host Guardian Service server role on both servers.

Correct Answer: C

If you have decided to use Kerberos to authenticate live migration traffic, configure constrained delegation before you proceed to the rest of the steps.

To configure constrained delegation

Open the Active Directory Users and Computers snap-in.

From the navigation pane, select the domain and double-click the Computers folder.

From the Computers folder, right-click the computer account of the source server and then click Properties.

In the Properties dialog box, click the Delegation tab.

On the delegation tab, select Trust this computer for delegation to the specified services only. Under that option, select Use Kerberos only.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/virtualization/hyper-v/deploy/set-up-hosts-for-live-migration-without-failover-clustering


Question 12:

Your network contains three Hyper-V hosts. You add all of the hosts to a cluster.

You need to create highly available storage spaces that connect to directly attached storage on the hosts.

Which cmdlet should you use?

A. Update-ClusterVirtualMachineConfiguration

B. Enable-ClusterStorageSpacesDirect

C. Set-StoragePool

D. Add-ClusterDisk

Correct Answer: B

The Enable-ClusterStorageSpacesDirect cmdlet enables highly available Storage Spaces that use directly attached storage Storage Spaces Direct (S2D) on a cluster.


Question 13:

You are configuring a Windows Server 2016 failover cluster in a workgroup.

Before installing one of the nodes, you run the ipconfig /all command and receive the following output.

You need to ensure that Server1 can be added as a node in the cluster. What should you do?

A. Configure a DNS suffix.

B. Enable NetBIOS over TCP/IP.

C. Change the Node Type to Broadcast.

D. Assign a static IP address.

Correct Answer: A

In addition to the pre-requisites of Single-domain clusters, there are additional pre-requisites for Multi-domain or Workgroup clusters in the Windows Server 2016 including Primary DNS Suffix Requirements.

*

Each cluster node needs to have a primary DNS suffix.

*

For Multi-domain Clusters: The DNS suffix for all the domains in the cluster, should be present on all cluster nodes…

Note: Failover Clusters can now be created in the following configurations:

Single-domain Clusters: Clusters with all nodes joined to the same domain

Multi-domain Clusters: Clusters with nodes which are members of different domains

Workgroup Clusters: Clusters with nodes which are member servers / workgroup (not domain joined)

References: https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/clustering/2015/08/17/workgroup-and-multi-domain-clusters-in-windows-server-2016/


Question 14:

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.

You have an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm. The farm contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.

You add a server named Server2 to the farm. Server2 runs Windows Server 2016.

You remove Server1 from the farm.

You need to ensure that you can use role separation to manage the farm.

Which cmdlet should you run?

A. Update-AdfsRelyingPartyTrust

B. Invoke-AdfsFarmBehaviorLevelRaise

C. Set-AdfsFarmInformation

D. Set-AdfsProperties

Correct Answer: B

AD FS for Windows Server 2016 introduces the ability to have separation between server administrators and AD FS service administrators.

After upgrading our ADFS servers to Windows Server 2016, the last step is to raise the Farm Behavior Level using the Invoke-AdfsFarmBehaviorLevelRaise PowerShell cmdlet.

To upgrade the farm behavior level from Windows Server 2012 R2 to Windows Server 2016 use the Invoke-ADFSFarmBehaviorLevelRaise cmdlet.

References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/mt605334(v=ws.11).aspx


Question 15:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.

Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 contains a virtual machine named VM1.

You need to ensure that you can use nested virtualization on VM1.

What should you run on Server1?

A. the Mount-VHD cmdlet

B. the Diskpart command

C. the Set-VHD cmdlet

D. the Set-VM cmdlet

E. the Set-VMHost cmdlet

F. the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet

G. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet

H. the Optimize-VHD cmdlet

Correct Answer: F

Configure Nested Virtualization

Create a virtual machine.

While the virtual machine is in the OFF state, run the following command on the physical Hyper-V host. This enables nested virtualization for the virtual machine.

Set-VMProcessor -VMName -ExposeVirtualizationExtensions $true

References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/hyperv_on_windows/user_guide/nesting


Free Providing Geekcert Microsoft 70-458 VCE Exam Study Guides With New Update Exam Questions

One of my colleague recommend me that Geekcert MCSA Jan 15,2022 Hotest 70-458 vce dumps are effective and helpful. Thank goodness I followed up with him and choose Geekcert as my assistance on my MCSA Latest 70-458 free download Transition Your MCTS on SQL Server 2008 to MCSA: SQL Server 2012, Part 2 certification exam! I passed my Microsoft MCSA Hotest 70-458 vce exam very easily. I was lucky, all my questions in the exams were from my Microsoft MCSA Newest 70-458 practice dumps.

Geekcert goal help you get passed in all 70-458 certification exams first attempt. 70-458 high pass rate and success rate. unlimited access to 3500 Geekcert exams q and a. Geekcert 70-458 exam certification prep online course training. Geekcert | lead to pass 70-458 certification exams. first test, first pass!

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 70-458 preparation materials from Microsoft Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/70-458.html

The following are the 70-458 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 70-458 dumps.Do you what to see some samples before 70-458 exam? Check the following 70-458 free dumps or download 70-458 dumps here.

Question 1:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series.

You administer a SQL 2012 server that contains a database named SalesDb. SalesDb contains a schema named Customers that has a table named Regions. A user named userA is a member of a role named Sales.

UserA is granted the Select permission on the Regions table. The Sales role is granted the Select permission on the Customers schema.

You need to remove the Select permission for userA on the Regions table. You also need to ensure that UserA can still access all the tables in the Customers schema, including the Regions table, through the Sales role permissions.

A. DENY SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM Sales

B. DENY SELECT ON Schema:: Customers FROM Soles

C. REVOKE SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM Soles

D. REVOKE SELECT ON Schema: Customers FROM Soles

E. DENY SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM UserA

F. DENY SELECT ON Schema: Customers FROM UserA

G. REVOKE SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM UserA

H. REVOKE SELECT ON Schema::Customers FROM UserA

I. EXEC sp_oddrolemember \’Sales\’, \’UserA\’

J. EXEC 3p_droprolemember \’Sales\’, \’UserA\’

Correct Answer: G


Question 2:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You are deploying a new SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to several servers.

The package must meet the following requirements:

INET Common Language Runtime (CLR) integration in SQL Server must not be enabled.

The Connection Managers used in the package must be configurable without editing the package.

The deployment procedure must be automated as much as possible.

You need to set up a deployment strategy that meets the requirements.

A. Use the gacutil command.

B. use the dtutll /copy command.

C. use the Project Deployment Wizard.

D. create an OnError event handler.

E. create a reusable custom logging component.

F. Run the package by using the dtexec /rep /conn command.

G. Run the package by using the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.

H. Run the package by using the dtexecui.exe utility and the SQL Log provider.

I. Add a data tap on the output of a component in the package data flow.

J. Deploy the package by using an msi file.

K. Deploy the package to the Integration Services catalog by using dtutil and use SQL Server to store the configuration.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

You are designing a data warehouse that uses SQL Server 2012. You are preparing to update the contents of a fact table that contains a non-clustered columnstore index.

You need to run an update statement against the table.

A. Change the recovery model of the database to Bulk-logged.

B. Pause the columnstore index.

C. Change the non-clustered columnstore index to be a clustered columnstore index.

D. Drop the columnstore index.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project by using the Project Deployment Mode. The project will be deployed to an SSIS catalog folder where Environments have already been created.

You need to deploy the project.

A. Use an event handler for OnError for the package.

B. Use an event handler for OnError for each data flow task.

C. Use an event handler for OnTaskFailed for the package.

D. View the job history for the SQL Server Agent job.

E. View the All Messages subsection of the All Executions report for the package.

F. Store the System::SourceID variable in the custom log table.

G. Store the System::ServerExecutionID variable in the custom log table.

H. Store the System::ExecutionInstanceGUID variable in the custom log table.

I. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnError in the package control flow.

J. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnTaskFailed in the package control flow.

K. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY DTS option.

L. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY SQL option.

M. Deploy the .ispac file by using the Integration Services Deployment Wizard.

N. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_project stored procedure.

O. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_package stored procedure.

P. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.create_execution and SSISDB.catalog.*tart_execution stored procedures.

Q. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes OnError event text to the table.

R. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes OnTaskFailed event text to the table.

Correct Answer: M


Question 5:

You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to implement an incremental data load strategy. The package reads data from a source system that uses the SQL Server change data capture (CDC) feature.

You have added a CDC Source component to the data flow to read changed data from the source system.

You need to add a data flow transformation to redirect rows for separate processing of insert, update, and delete operations.

A. Pivot

B. Merge

C. Audit

D. CDC Splitter

Correct Answer: D

http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh758656.aspx


Question 6:

You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database named Sales. The database is 3 terabytes in size. The Sales database is configured as shown in the following

You discover that all files except Sales_2.ndf are corrupt.

You need to recover the corrupted data in the minimum amount of time.

What should you do?

A. Perform a file restore.

B. Perform a restore from a full backup.

C. Perform a transaction log restore.

D. Perform a filegroup restore.

Correct Answer: D

Restoring just the failed filegroup would save time since the database is large.


Question 7:

You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.

The database contains a table that has the following definition:

You want to export data from the table to a flat file by using the SQL Server Import and Export Wizard.

You need to ensure that the following requirements are met:

The first row of the file contains the first row of data.

Each record is of the same length.

The date follows the U.S. date format.

The file supports international characters.

What should you do? (To answer, configure the appropriate option or options in the dialog box in the answer area.)

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 8:

You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to implement an incremental data load strategy. The package reads rows from a source system and compares them to rows in a destination system. New rows will be

inserted and changed rows will be updated.

You have used a Lookup transformation and a Conditional Split transformation. The Lookup transformation joins the source and destination table on the business key, and includes all columns from the destination table in the data flow output.

The Conditional Split transformation inspects the destination columns and directs data flow to either insert new records or update existing records.

You need to configure the Lookup transformation to ensure that all records flow to the Conditional Split transformation, regardless of whether the rows match an existing row in the destination table. Which setting should you select? (To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.)

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 9:

You are developing a SQL Server Integration Service (SSIS) package. The package loads a customer dimension table by using a data flow task.

Changes to the customer attributes must be tracked over time.

You need to produce a checksum value to identify the rows that have changed since the last Extract, Transform and Load (ETL) process execution. You need to use the least amount of development effort to achieve this goal.

Which transformation should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate transformation in the answer area.)

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 10:

You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.

The package control flow will contain many tasks. The tasks will execute consecutively and none will execute more than once. Certaingroups of tasks will share variable and transaction scope.

You need to group tasks together while enabling them to be collapsed and expanded as a group.

Which item should you use from the SSIS Toolbox? (To answer, select the appropriate item in the answer area.)

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 11:

You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.

All database traffic to the SQL Server must be encrypted by using secure socket layer (SSL) certificates or the connection must be refused.

Network administrators have deployed server certificates to the Windows store of all Windows servers on the network from a trusted Certificate Authority. This is the only Certificate Authority allowed to distribute certificates on the network.

You enable the Force Encryption flag for the MSSQLServer protocols, but client computers are unable to connect. They receive the following error message:

“A connection was successfully established with the server, but then an error occurred during the pre-login handshake, (provider: SSL Provider, error: 0 – The certificate chain was issued by an authority that is not trusted.) (Microsoft SQL

Server)” You notice the following entry in the SQL Server log:

“A self-generated certificate was successfully loaded for encryption.”

You need to configure SQL Server to encrypt all client traffic across the network. You also need to ensure that client computers are able to connect to the server by using a trusted certificate.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order,)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 12:

You administer three Microsoft SQL Server 2012 servers named ServerA, Servers, and ServerC.

ServerA is the acting principal and ServerB is the mirror.

You need to add ServerC as a witness to the existing mirroring session between ServerA and ServerB. You need to achieve this goal without delaying synchronization. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move

the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 13:

You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database.

You want to import data from a text file to the database.

You need to ensure that the following requirements are met:

Data import is performed from a Windows batch file.

Data is loaded as a unit and is minimally logged.

Which data import command and recovery model should you choose? (To answer, drag the appropriate data import command or recovery model to the appropriate location or locations in the answer area. Answer choices may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Answer targets may be used once or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 14:

You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a database of confidential data.

You need to encrypt the database files at the page level. You also need to encrypt the transaction log files.

Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 15:

You are building a fact table In a data warehouse.

The table must have a columnstore index. The table cannot be partitioned.

You need to design the fact table and load it with data.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Create the fact table.

Box 2: Create the columnstore index with the MAXDOP keyword.

Box 3: Load the data.


Easily Pass C_ACTIVATE12 Exam with Geekcert Latest SAP C_ACTIVATE12 Study Materials

There is no need to worry when you are suffering the difficult time in the SAP Certified Associate Hotest C_ACTIVATE12 study guide exam preparation, Geekcert will assist you to pass the SAP Certified Associate Hotest C_ACTIVATE12 vce dumps exam with latest update SAP Certified Associate Newest C_ACTIVATE12 exam questions SAP Certified Associate – SAP Activate Project Manager PDF and VCE dumps. Geekcert has the most comprehensive SAP exam preparation materials, covering each and every aspect of SAP Certified Associate Jan 14,2022 Latest C_ACTIVATE12 vce dumps SAP Certified Associate – SAP Activate Project Manager exam curriculum. We ensure you 100% success in SAP Certified Associate Newest C_ACTIVATE12 free download exam.

Geekcert – the most professional provider of all C_ACTIVATE12 certifications. pass all the C_ACTIVATE12 exam easily. pass the C_ACTIVATE12 exam on your first attempt with Geekcert! Geekcert – leading source of C_ACTIVATE12 certification exam learning/practice. Geekcert – leading provider of latest C_ACTIVATE12 certification exam study materials. try to download the free demo.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest C_ACTIVATE12 preparation materials from SAP Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/c_activate12.html

The following are the C_ACTIVATE12 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our C_ACTIVATE12 dumps.Free sample questions of C_ACTIVATE12 free dumps are provided here. All the following questions are from the latest real C_ACTIVATE12 dumps.

Question 1:

Which of the following are the key responsibilities of the Scrum Master? There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Task initiator

B. Responsible for the project delivery

C. Team support

D. Leadership skill

E. Team protection

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 2:

How would you describe the realise phase in the “new implementation of SAP S/4HANA” transition path?

A. Configure and adjust custom code

B. Configuration copy

C. Configure

D. Configure and develop

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

What does “SSCUI” stand for?

A. Self-Service Customization User Interface

B. Self-Service Configuration User Interface

C. Self-Service Creation User Interface

D. Self-Service Collection User Interface

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What does the side-by-side extensibility option mean?

A. Transfer reporting to BW/4HANA

B. Context-aware SAP S/4HANA extensions, focused on tight integration

C. Extensibility based on the SAP cloud platform and published APIs

D. Have two SAP S/4HANA instances-one for standard code, and another for customer developments

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What tool provides sizing estimators for the “system conversion” transition path?

A. SAP best practices explorer

B. Scope and effort analyser

C. SAP Transformation navigator

D. SAP readiness check

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

What is the minimum number of quality gates mandated by the SAP Activate methodology?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. 0

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which content packages are available in the SAP Package Library?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. SAP Activate Methodology

B. SAP Best Practices

C. Solution Builder

D. Rapid Deployment Solutions

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

What hosts the Test Execution Service that drives automated business process testing in SAP S/4HANA Cloud?

A. SAP Cloud Platform

B. SAP Cloud Identity

C. Manage Your Solution app

D. SAP HANA Enterprise Cloud

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

How can the project manager help to keep momentum in the project and help to keep the customer involved?

A. Leverage agile cycles to build and test the solution

B. Increase the number of Q-Gates

C. Add customer resources to the project to reduce the need for formal training

D. Walk through the solution processes with the stakeholders

Correct Answer: AC


Question 10:

What are some of the capabilities end users can utilize to adapt and change their launchpad home page according to the way they work?

A. Rearrange or move tiles within a group

B. Add any SAP Fiori apps to a group, regardless of role

C. Delete a predelivered group

D. Rename a predelivered tile

E. Add a new group

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 11:

Which of the following is not correct about workstreams? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. It is assigned as attribute to phases, deliverables and tasks.

B. It can span phases

C. It is a collection of related deliverables

D. Workstreams are dependent on phase start and end

Correct Answer: AD


Question 12:

In SAP Activate, what replaces the detailed Blueprint from ASAP?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Business Process Mapping

B. Value Determination

C. Custom Extension management

D. Fit/Gap Workshops

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which collaboration features can SAP Activate Jam users access?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. Ask questions

B. Update Key Deliverable wikis

C. Tweet questions

D. Comment on documents

Correct Answer: AD


Question 14:

Which deliverable is specific to on-premise and NOT for the cloud?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Technical Design Solution

B. Knowledge Transfer

C. Adaptation Specification

D. Learning Needs Analysis

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which activities are part of the Design and Configuration application of the SAP Activate methodology? There are 2 correct answers to this question

A. Schedule kick-off workshop

B. Conduct Scope Validation

C. Confirm Integration prerequisites

D. Perform Fit/Gap Analysis

Correct Answer: BD


[PDF and VCE] Free Geekcert SNIA S10-210 PDF Real Exam Questions and Answers Free Download

How to pass SNIA – SCSE Jan 14,2022 Newest S10-210 vce exam 100% without any difficulties? We, Geekcert, provide the latest exam preparation material for the SNIA Hotest S10-210 pdf Storage Networking Management and Administration exam. Successful candidates share their experience about their SNIA – SCSE Hotest S10-210 vce exam and the SNIA – SCSE Hotest S10-210 practice exam preparation with Geekcert exam Q and As. Geekcert provides the new VCE and PDF dumps for the latest Newest S10-210 pdf exam. We ensure your SNIA – SCSE Latest S10-210 free download Storage Networking Management and Administration exam pass.

Geekcert expert team is will help you to get all S10-210 certifications easily. Geekcert – S10-210 certification exams – original questions and answers – success guaranteed. Geekcert – leading provider on all S10-210 certification real exam practice and test questions and answers. best multis Geekcert study guide | pass the Geekcert exam with ease.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest S10-210 preparation materials from SNIA Official Exam-Center: https://www.geekcert.com/S10-210.html

The following are the S10-210 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our S10-210 dumps.We have sample questions for S10-210 free dumps. You can download and check the real questions of updated S10-210 dumps.

Question 1:

A customer has upgraded all switches in their redundant fabrics during a single maintenance window. Shortly after the upgrades are completed on the core switches, all servers lose access to all SAN attached storage.

What would have prevented this scenario?

A. High availability

B. Fault tolerance

C. Change or risk management

D. Clustered servers

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Click the Exhibit button.

What is the protocol stack shown in the exhibit?

A. FCoE

B. SCSI

C. InfiniBand

D. Fibre Channel

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

You have a server which is booting from a SAN. After adding new SAN storage to a host, the host will not boot from the SAN.

What will resolve this problem?

A. LUN masking

B. Persistent binding

C. Trunking

D. Multiplex binding

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Click the Exhibit button.

The customer configuration shown in the exhibit is not meeting the throughput needs of a newly installed application. The application\’s I/O profile consists of 100% 4 kilobyte reads and all servers require a sustained bandwidth of 150 MBps.

Which location within the configuration presents a performance bottleneck?

A. Links between hosts and Switch A

B. Inter-switch link between Switch A and Switch B

C. Inter-switch link between Switch B and Switch C

D. Links between Switch C and storage subsystem

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

You have been asked to create a LUN on a storage array that is comprised of 7,200 rpm SATA drives. Each drive is rated at 100 IOPS. The LUN should provide a minimum of 1100 IOPS and withstand multiple drive failures using the least number of drives.

How many drives and which RAID level should you use to create this LUN?

A. 11 drives and RAID 0

B. 12 drives and RAID 5

C. 13 drives and RAID 6

D. 22 drives and RAID 1

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

You have completed installing your FC SAN. When everything is powered on, numerous devices are not available. You need to verify that the devices appear within the FC fabric by accessing the appropriate FC service that provides a list of devices and their respective function.

Which server within the Fibre Channel fabric would be used to do this?

A. Fabric Login server

B. Name server

C. Management server

D. Fabric Controller

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

The enterprise storage system has the “call home” feature enabled and configured. However, the storage administrator has been told that “call home” is not working.

Which two actions should you perform? (Choose two.)

A. Verify SMTP settings.

B. Verify SNMP thresholds.

C. Verify firewall rules.

D. Verify the SMI-S configuration.

E. Verify VSAN configuration.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 8:

What are two concerns when trying to migrate from one cloud storage provider to another one? (Choose two.)

A. Stability

B. Accessibility

C. Different drive types

D. CAN protocol compatibility

Correct Answer: AB


Question 9:

You have been asked to implement a remote data replication scheme. The current data center is mostly constructed of FC components and the corporation is highly invested in the technology. The remote data center needs a synchronous replication solution.

What will accomplish this goal?

A. iSCSI

B. NAS

C. FCIP

D. FCoE

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Click the Exhibit button.

Which protocol is represented in the exhibit?

A. iSCSI

B. IPv6 Ethernet

C. IPv4 Ethernet

D. FCoE

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A data center has an existing three tiered storage solution consisting of enterprise, nearline, and tape. Each storage tier has available expansion capacity. A new mission-critical application is being developed that will require 4TBs of extremely low latency enterprise storage. The new application will be hosted on clustered servers. Cost is not a factor.

Which solution will meet the requirements?

A. Add sufficient SSDs to an existing nearline storage system.

B. Add sufficient SSDs to an existing enterprise storage platform.

C. Add sufficient SAS drives to an existing enterprise storage platform.

D. Add sufficient SAS drives to an existing nearline storage system.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

You are performing an FC switch replacement and you want to ensure that no hosts will be disconnected from its storage.

Which multipathing software feature, on a server, must be supported and configured for a server to continue to have access to the fabric attached storage in this scenario?

A. Active-passive

B. Path failover

C. Round-robin

D. Standby

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Your organization operates in a regulated environment and contracts with a service provider to manage tape backup media for highly confidential, secure data.

Using SNIA Storage Security Best Practices, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Tape backup media is stored in a secure, temperature controlled vault.

B. The service provider keeps unencrypted backup media locked during transport.

C. All removable media is encrypted and backup media locked during transport.

D. The customer manages the chain of custody.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 14:

After provisioning a new LUN to a host, new storage cannot be detected on the host. Which three actions should be performed to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose three.)

A. Scan memory on a host.

B. Scan for new storage on the host,

C. Verify that LUN mapping is correct.

D. Verify that zoning on the FC switch is correct.

E. Verify that the size of memory pages and block size is the same.

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 15:

A business critical enterprise resource planning (ERP) system uses a central database at a company\’s primary data center. The company has built an out-of-region disaster recovery data center and intends to implement a standby ERP system with an eight hour RTO and 30 minute RPO.

Which architectural approach to implement service continuity for the ERP database will meet the RTO and RPO targets?

A. Implement asynchronous replication of the ERP database, application, and middle tiers to ensure the ERP system is back online with less than 30 minutes of data loss within eight hours of an event.

B. Implement asynchronous replication of the ERP database, application, and middle tiers to ensure the ERP system is back online with less than eight hours of data loss within 30 minutes of an event.

C. Perform daily full database backups to tape and overnight ship the backup tape media from one data center to the other to ensure the ERP system is back online with less than eight hours of data loss within 30 minutes of an event.

D. Implement synchronous database replication and configure application logic to ensure transactions are identical in both data centers as the recovery objectives do not allow for any inflight data loss.

Correct Answer: A