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Question 1:

Which organization developed and maintains the Universal Mobile Telecommunications System?

A. 3GPP2

B. 3GPP

C. ITU

D. ANSI

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which two services does GPRS support? (Choose two.)

A. MMS

B. SMS

C. Video Calling

D. EMM

E. ESM

Correct Answer: AB


Question 3:

In which three scenarios is a Create Session Request sent to the SGW? (Choose three.)

A. Gn/Gp SGSN to S4 SGSN routing area update

B. Gn/Gp SGSN to MME tracking area update procedure

C. UE requested PDN connectivity

D. UE triggered service request

E. ready to STANDBY transition within the network F. network triggered service request procedure

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 4:

In which two ways does SGSN detect and know when GGSN has restarted? (Choose two.)

A. change in recovery value in echo response

B. change in recovery value in PDU notification request from GGSN to SGSN

C. change in recovery value in Update PDP Context Request from GGSN to SGSN

D. when the sequence number in a response message is different from that of the request message

E. when the TEID value in response in GTP header is different from that of the request message

Correct Answer: AC


Question 5:

In which two scenarios is a create bearer request sent from the SGW to the SGSN on the S4 interface? (Choose two.)

A. secondary PDP context activation procedure

B. network-requested secondary PDP context activation procedure

C. network-triggered service request procedure

D. when downlink data arrives for the released bearers

E. PGW restart restoration procedure

Correct Answer: AB


Question 6:

Which option describes how a PDN connection context is identified at the PGW?

A. IMSI and EPS bearer ID

B. IMSI, EPS bearer ID, and interface type

C. IMSI, QoS, and EPS bearer ID

D. MSISDN, QoS, and interface type

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which two functionalities does an update PDP context request sent from the GGSN to the SGSN provide? (Choose two.)

A. Provide a PDP address to the MS.

B. Check that the PDP context is active.

C. Delete a PDP context from the SGSN.

D. Establish a network-requested secondary PDP context activation procedure.

E. Establish a network-requested primary PDP context activation procedure.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

Which option is the page response for a PS paging request in 2G access?

A. service request with type “data”

B. service request with type “page response”

C. any uplink LLC PDU from MS/BSC

D. any uplink BSSGP PDU from MS/BSC

E. service request with type “signaling”

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which two configurations are required for narrow band SS7 configuration in the Cisco ASR 5000 system? (Choose two.)

A. link type configuration in the SS7 routing domain

B. framing type configuration at the card level

C. SCCP network association at the port level

D. Iu-PS service association at the port level

E. peer server configuration at the SS7 routing domain

Correct Answer: AB


Question 10:

Which IP protocol number is used by GRE?

A. 41

B. 47

C. 14

D. 51

E. 57

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which MPLS/BGP functionality can the Cisco ASR 5000 GGSN run in a service provider network?

A. provider edge router

B. customer edge router

C. autonomous system border router

D. provider edge and customer edge

E. provider router

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

During the network-initiated PDP activation procedure, which network entity provides the GGSN the address of the SGSN, which the subscriber is attached to?

A. AAA

B. OCS

C. PCRF

D. HLR

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 14:

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 15:

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


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Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the description from the left onto the correct QoS components on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Traffic Policing: Drops excessive Traffic, causes TCP retransmissions, introduce no delay/jitter Shaping: buffers, excessive traffic, introduce delay and jitter, typically delays, rather than drops traffic


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct infrastructure deployment types on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct routing protocol types on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 4:

DRAG DROP

Drag the drop the description from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 5:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the LISP components from the left onto the function they perform on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

accepts LISP encapsulated map requests: LISP map resolver learns of EID prefix mapping entries from an ETR: LISP map server receives traffic from LISP sites and sends it to non-LISP sites: LISP proxy ETR

receives packets from site-facing interfaces: LISP ITR ITR is the function that maps the destination EID to a destination RLOC and then encapsulates the original packet with an additional header that has the source IP address of the ITR RLOC and the destination IP address of the RLOC of an Egress Tunnel Router (ETR). After the encapsulation, the original packet become a LISP packet. ETR is the function that receives LISP encapsulated packets, decapsulates them and forwards to its local EIDs. This function also requires EID-to-RLOC mappings so we need to point out an “map-server” IP address and the key (password) for authentication. A LISP proxy ETR (PETR) implements ETR functions on behalf of non-LISP sites. A PETR is typically used when a LISP site needs to send traffic to non-LISP sites but the LISP site is connected through a service provider that does not accept no routable EIDs as packet sources. PETRs act just like ETRs but for EIDs that send traffic to destinations at non-LISP sites. Map Server (MS) processes the registration of authentication keys and EID-to-RLOC mappings. ETRs sends periodic Map-Register messages to all its configured Map Servers. Map Resolver (MR): a LISP component which accepts LISP Encapsulated Map Requests, typically from an ITR, quickly determines

whether or not the destination IP address is part of the EID namespace

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/5-0/LISPmobility/ DCI_LISP_Host_Mobility/LISPmobile_2.html#:~:text=– Proxy ITR (PITR):% 20A,devices deployed at LISP sites.


Question 6:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct infrastructure deployment types on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 7:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the REST API authentication method from the left to the description on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 8:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the DHCP messages that are exchanged between a client and an AP into the order they are exchanged on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

There are four messages sent between the DHCP Client and DHCP Server: DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER, DHCPREQUEST and DHCPACKNOWLEDGEMENT.

This process is often abbreviated as DORA (for Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledgement).


Question 9:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

EIGRP maintains alternative loop-free backup via the feasible successors. To qualify as a feasible successor, a router must have an Advertised Distance (AD) less than the Feasible distance (FD) of the current successor route. Advertised distance (AD): the cost from the neighbor to the destination. Feasible distance (FD): The sum of the AD plus the cost between the local router and the next-hop router


Question 10:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the threat defense solutions from the left onto their descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 11:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure types on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 12:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the LIPS components on the left to the correct description on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 13:

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the Qos mechanisms from the left to the correct descriptions on the right

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 14:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the virtual component from the left onto their descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

configuration file containing settings for a virtual machine such as guest OS: VMX

component of a virtual machine responsible for sending packets to the hypervisor: vNIC

zip file containing a virtual machine configuration file and a virtual disk: OVA

file containing a virtual machine disk drive: VMDK


Question 15:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the QoS components they describe on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Marking = applied on traffic to convey Information to a downstream device Classification = distinguish traffic types Trust = Permits traffic to pass through the device while retaining DSCP/COS values shaping = process used to buffer traffic that exceeds a predefined rate


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Question 1:

A network administrator is in charge of a Mobility Master (MM) ?Mobility Controller (MC) based WLAN. The administrator has deployed an Airwave Management Platform (AMP) server in order to improve the monitoring capabilities and

generate reports and alerts.

The administrator has configured SNMPv3 and Admin credentials on both the MMs and MCs and has created Groups and Folders in the AMP server.

What two additional steps must the administrator do in order to let Airwave monitor the network devices? (Choose two.)

A. Manually add the Active MM and wait for automatic Discovery.

B. Map the AMP\’s IP address with a mgmt-config profile in the MM.

C. Set the AMP\’s IP address and Org string as DHCP option 43.

D. Manually add each MM, MC and Access Point in the AMP server.

E. Move “New” devices into a group and folder in Airwave.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 2:

A customer wants a WLAN solution that permits Aps to terminate WPA-2 encrypted traffic from different SSIDs to different geographic locations where non-related IT departments will take care of enforcing security policies. A key requirement is to minimize network congestion, overhead, and delay while providing data privacy from the client to the security policy enforcement point. Therefore, the solution must use the shortest path from source to destination.

Which Aruba feature best accommodates this scenario?

A. Inter MC S2S IPsec tunnels

B. RAPs

C. Multizone Aps

D. VIA

E. Inter MC GRE tunnels

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibits. Exhibit 1

Exhibit 2

Exhibit 3

A network administrator wants to allow contractors to access the corporate WLAN named EmployeesNet with the contractor role in VLAN 40. When users connect, they do not seem to get an IP address. After some verification checks, the network administrator confirms the DHCP server (10.254.1.21) is reachable from the Mobility Controller (MC) and obtains the outputs shown in the exhibits.

What should the network administrator do next to troubleshoot this problem?

A. Permit UDP67 to the contractor role.

B. Remove the IP address in VLAN 40.

C. Configure the DHCP helper address.

D. Confirm there is an IP pool for VLAN 40.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Refer to the exhibits. Exhibit 1

Exhibit 2

A network administrator integrates a current Mobility Master (MM) – Mobility Controller (MC) deployment with a RADIUS server to authenticate a wireless user, the network administrator realizes that the client machine is not failing into the it_department role, as shown the exhibits.

Which configuration is required to map the users into the proper role, based on standard attributes returned by the RADIUS server in the Access Accept message?

A. aaa server-group Corp-Network set role condition Filter-Id equals it-role set-value it_department

B. aaa server-group Corp-employee set role condition Filter-Id value-of

C. aaa server-group Corp-employee set role condition Filter-Id equals it-role set-value it_department

D. aaa server-group ClearPass set role condition Filter-Id equals it_department set-value it-role

E. aaa server-group Corp-Network set role condition Filter-Id equals it_department set-value it-role

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit: A company acquires ten barcode scanners to run inventory tasks. These WiFi devices support WPA2-PSK security only. The network administrator deploys a WLAN named scanners using the configuration shown in the exhibit. What must the network administrator do next to ensure that the scanner devices successfully connect to their SSID?

A. Set internal as the MAC authentication server group.

B. Add scanner MAC addresses in user derivation rules.

C. Enable L2 Authentication Fail Through.

D. Add scanner MAC addresses in the internal database.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator deploys DSCP based prioritization in the entire wired network to improve voice quality for a SIP-based IP telephony system used by the company. However, users report that calls they make from WLAN have poor audio quality, while desktop phones do not experience the same problem. The network administrator makes a test call and looks in the datapath session table.

Based on the output shown in the exhibit, what is one area that the network administrator should focus on?

A. UCC based DSCP correction

B. WMM support on the WLAN

C. Dynamic Multicast Rate Optimization

D. wired network congestion

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

An organization has several RAPs at different locations that broadcast two SSIDs. The internet-only SSID is in bridge/always mode, and the corporate SSID is in split-tunneling/standard mode. The network administrator deploys 10 more

RAPs in different locations.

Users can successfully connect to the corporate SSID that is propagated by a RAP at a remote location. However, they report that it takes too long to access public internet web sites.

What is one part of the configuration that should be checked by the network administrator to verify this RAP deployment?

A. User roles policies

B. IP pool

C. Operating mode

D. Assigned VLAN

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

An Aruba Mobility Master (MM) – Mobility Controller (MC) solution is connected to a wired network that is ready to prioritize DSCP marked traffic. A group of WMM-enabled clients sends traffic marked at L2 only.

What must the network administrator do to map those markings to DSCP equivalent values when traffic is received by the APs?

A. Enable WMM in the SSID profile.

B. Enable WMM in the VAP profile.

C. Enable Skype4Business ALG Support.

D. Enable traffic to be marked with session ACLs.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

A company with 50 small coffee shops in a single country requires a single mobility solution that solves connectivity needs at both the main office and branch locations. Coffee shops must be provisioned with local WiFi internet access for customers.

The shops must also have a private WLAN that offers communication to resources at the main office to upload sales, request supplies through a computer system, and make phone calls if needed. In order to simplify network operations, network devices at the coffee shops should be cloud managed.

Which technologies best meet the company needs at the lowest cost?

A. IAP VPN

B. SD-Branch

C. Activate with RAPs

D. BOC with CAPs

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator deploys a Mobility Master (MM) – Mobility Controller (MC) network with Aps in different locations. Users in one of the locations report that the WiFi network works fine for several hours, and then they are suddenly

disconnected. This symptom may happen at any time, up to three times every day, and lasts no more than two minutes.

After some research, the network administrator logs into the MM and reviews the output shown in the exhibit.

Based on this information, what is the most likely reason users get disconnected?

A. Adaptive Radio Management is reacting to RF events.

B. AirMatch is applying a scheduled optimization solution.

C. Users in the 2.4 GHz band are being affected by high interference.

D. AirMatch is reacting to non-scheduled RF events.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the output shown in the exhibit, which wireless connection phase has just completed?

A. L3 authentication and encryption

B. MAC Authentication and 4-way handshake

C. 802.11 enhanced open association

D. L2 authentication and encryption

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

An organization provides WiFi access through a corporate SSID with an Aruba Mobility Master (MM) – Mobility Controller (MC) network that includes PEF functions. The organization wants to have a single firewall policy configured and applied

to the employee role.

This policy must allow users to reach Web, FTP, and DNS services, as shown in the exhibit. Other services should be exclusive to other roles. The client NICs should receive IP settings dynamically.

Which policy design meets the organization\’s requirements while minimizing the number of policy rules?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has created AAA profile for the corporate VAP. In addition to the regular Radius based authentication, the administrator needs to be able to disconnect the users from either of the two servers that are part of the “Radius” server group.

What must the administrator do next in order to achieve this goal?

A. Use the “Radius” server group as the RADIUS Accounting Server Group in the AAA profile.

B. Create two new RFC 3576 servers and assign them as the RFC 3576 servers in the AAA profile.

C. Use the “Radius” server group as both the Accounting Server Group and the RFC 3576 server in the AAA profile.

D. Use the “Radius” server group as the RFC 3576 server in the AAA profile.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_61/ArubaOS_61_UG/AP_Config.php


Question 14:

Refer to the exhibits.

A user reports slow response time to a network administrator and suggests that there might be a problem with the WLAN. The user\’s phone supports 802.11ac in the 5 GHz band. The network administrator finds the user in the Mobility Master (MM) and reviews the output shown in the exhibit.

What can the network administrator conclude after analyzing the data?

A. The low SNR forces the client to back off to low MCs, therefore speed is low and retransmits are high.

B. Client health is poor, but SNR is fair. TX power must be increased in both the client and the AP.

C. Since SNR is good, then the high retransmit rate must be due a hidden node scenario or high interference.

D. High Successful frame count and high Max Speed is an indication of a healthy client. Connection will improve at any time.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

A 7008 Branch Office Controller (BOC) is deployed in a remote office behind a core router. This core does not support 802.1q encapsulation. The Mobility Controller (MC) is the gateway for two tunneling mode SSIDs, as shown in the exhibit. Which two different configuration options ensure that wireless users are able to reach the branch network through the router? (Choose two.)

A. Configure all ports of the BOC as access ports on the controller VLAN, and change the gateway of clients to the core router IP.

B. Configure the uplink of the BOC as an access port on the controller VLAN, and add static routes in the router for the SSID VLAN subnets.

C. Configure the uplink of the BOC as a trunk port that permits the controller and the SSID VLANs. The controller VLAN must be native.

D. Configure the uplink of the BOC as an access port on the controller VLAN, and enable NAT for the SSID VLANs.

E. Configure the uplink of the BOC as a trunk port, tagging the controller and the SSOD VLANs, and enable NAT for the SSID VLANs.

Correct Answer: BE


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Question 1:

In Phase G, what document establishes the connection between the architecture organization and the implementation organization?

A. Architecture Contract

B. Architecture Landscape

C. Architecture Roadmap

D. Requirements Impact Statement

E. Transition Architecture

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which one of the following is NOT part of the approach to Phase H -Architecture Change Management?

A. Business Scenarios

B. Capacity Measurement

C. Change Management

D. Measuring Business Growth

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which phase of the ADM is an on-going activity that is visited throughout a TOGAF architecture project?

A. Architecture Change Management

B. Implementation governance

C. Migration planning

D. Preliminary Phase

E. Requirements Management

Correct Answer: E


Question 4:

Which of the following statements best describes risk management in the ADM?

A. Risk analysis is best conducted in the Architecture Vision phase so that the risk is eliminated in subsequent phases

B. Risk analysis should be carried out first in the Migration Planning phase

C. Risk analysis is outside the scope of enterprise architecture projects

D. Risk is pervasive in all enterprise architecture activity and should be managed in all phases of the ADM

E. The only risks that are within the scope of enterprise architecture are technological risks

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which of the following is a technique recommended by TOGAF to help identify and understand requirements?

A. Architecture Maturity Models

B. Business Scenarios

C. Gap Analysis

D. Mind Maps

E. SWOT Analysis

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

The statement, “Getting information to the right people at the right time in a secure, reliable man-ner in order to support the operations that are core to the extended enterprise” describes the concept of_____

A. Boundaryless Information Flow

B. Interoperability

C. Portability

D. Service Oriented Architecture

E. Semantic Web

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which one of the following is recommended to define requirements and articulate the Architecture Vision created in Phase A?

A. Business scenario

B. Impact analysis

C. Mission statement

D. Requirements analysis

E. Solution architecture

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Gap Analysis is a technique used in Phases B, C, D and E. Which one of the following statements best describes the gap analysis technique?

A. It highlights areas of stakeholder concern

B. It highlights the impacts of change

C. It highlights services that are yet to be developed

D. It highlights services that are available

E. It highlights different viewpoints

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which one of the following describes the practice by which the enterprise architecture is managed and controlled at an enterprise-wide level?

A. Architecture governance

B. Corporate governance

C. IT governance

D. Technology governance

E. Portfolio management

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which one of the following does TOGAF Part VII recommend in order to implement an Enter-prise Architecture Capability?

A. Develop an Architecture Roadmap

B. Populate the Architecture Repository

C. Populate the Enterprise Continuum

D. Use the Architecture Development Method E. Use the Implementation Governance Phase

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which one of the following describes a purpose of an Architecture Compliance review?

A. To define the capabilities of the organization

B. To communicate the technical readiness of the project

C. To evaluate the readiness of the organization to undergo change

D. To produce a new Request for Architecture Work

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Complete the sentence by selecting the applicable pair of words. According to TOGAF, a/an _____ is used to describe the ____ of a stakeholder.

A. activity model, perspective

B. viewpoint, requirements

C. view, concerns

D. Node Connectivity Diagram, interconnections

E. Architecture trade-off analysis, constraints

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Complete the sentence. In TOGAF, legacy systems and processes that are going to be used again in the future are considered ______

A. Architecture Building Blocks

B. Components

C. Patterns

D. Re-usable Building Blocks

E. Solution Building Blocks

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Complete the sentence. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model _____

A. is an example and should be tailored to the needs of an organization

B. must be used “as is” for developing comprehensive architecture models

C. contains several industry specific frameworks

D. is intended to contain the Enterprise Continuum

E. contains only solution building blocks

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true?

A. Part I describes the TOGAF approach to Enterprise Architecture

B. Part II describes the definitions of terms used and the changes between versions of TOGAF

C. Part III describes requirements management and is considered to be the core of TOGAF

D. Part IV describes the ADM: a collection of guidelines and techniques used in TOGAF 9

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Click the exhibit.

Referring to the exhibit, traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is out of profile. Assuming bandwidth is available in this scenario, which statement is correct?

A. Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately after traffic being serviced by the s-4 scheduler.

B. Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately before traffic being serviced by the s-4 scheduler.

C. Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately before traffic being serviced by the s-2 scheduler.

D. Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately after traffic being serviced by the s-2 scheduler.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Click the Exhibit button.

You are configuring a new BGP session between router1 and router2. The session does not establish.

Referring to the exhibit, what must be done to establish this session?

A. You must define the peer-as number on router2.

B. You must define the autonomous- system number under the [edit routing-options] hierarchy on router1.

C. You must specify type as external on both devices.

D. You must specify the local-address on both devices.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which type of BGP is used to peer with a different autonomous system?

A. external

B. classless

C. dynamic

D. static

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Your campus EX9200 core devices are highly oversubscribed on bandwidth and reporting massive dropped packets. To immediately address the issue, you decide to implement shaping on all interfaces.

Which action will accomplish?

A. Apply the input-shape-rate 5G parameter to all interfaces under the [edit class-of service] hierarchy.

B. Define a CoS input traffic control profile with the shape-rate 5G parameter and apply it to all interfaces.

C. Define a CoS output traffic control profile with the shape-rate 5G parameter and apply it to all interfaces.

D. Apply the shape-rate 5G parameter to all interfaces under the [edit class-of service] hierarchy.]

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

What allows non-Web enabled devices to access the network on a port configured for captive portal?

A. A MAC address white list can be configured on the switch to allow specific MAC addresses to bypass the captive portal process.

B. LLDP can be used to query the type of device that is attempting to access the network, and predefined device types can be allowed to bypass the captive portal process.

C. Captive portal can be configured to only prompt for credentials when HTTP or HTTPS traffic is requested on a port to allow on-HTTP enabled devices access to the network.

D. Authentication credentials for specific devices can be preconfigured on the switch for automatic authentication.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Click the Exhibit button.

Router1, in peer AS 65001, advertises routes to R2 using EBGP. R2 advertises the routes learned from R1 to R3 using IBGP. R3 is configured as a route reflector with routers R6 and R7 as clients. Referring to the exhibit, to which routers will R3 advertise the BGP routes received from R2?

A. R6, R7

B. R4, R5

C. R2, R4, R5, R6, R7

D. R4, R5, R6, R7

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Untagged control packets entering interface ge-0/0/1 are not recognized.

B. Untagged data packets entering interface ge-0/0/2 will be tagged with VLAN ID 20.

C. Untagged control packets entering interface ge-0/0/3 are passed without a VLAN tag.

D. Untagged data packets entering interface ge-0/0/3 will be tagged with VLAN ID 1.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

Click the Exhibit button.

Which AS path matches the AS path regular expression shown in the exhibit?

A. 65100 65200 21870 21870

B. 65100 65101 65200 21870 21870

C. 65100 21870 65200 65300

D. 65100 65101 65200 65300 21870

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Click the Exhibit button.

A customer is concerned that the route damping policy on routes with prefixes greater than/17 is allowing too many flaps to occur. The customer does not want to change the default timer. Referring to the exhibit, which two actions would allow fewer flaps per route? (Choose two.)

A. Increase the suppress parameter to 3500.

B. Decrease the suppress parameter to 2000.

C. Increase the half-life parameter to 45.

D. Decrease the half-life parameter to 15.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 10:

Which protocol is used for port-level access control and authentication?

A. MD5

B. IPsec

C. 802.1X

D. AES

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Click the Exhibit.

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. The satellite device has two ports that are not online.

B. The satellite device has 14 network-facing ports available.

C. The satellite device is in a state of transition.

D. The satellite device can support up to 48 total ports.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 12:

Which two statements are true about 802.1X dynamic filters based on RADUIS attributes? (Choose two.)

A. Filters can be defined on the network management system and deployed using vendor-specific attributes.

B. Filters can be defined on the switch and deployed upon authentication.

C. Filters can be defined on an automation framework and deployed when triggered by an authentication syslog message.

D. Filters can be defined on the authentication server and deployed using vendor-specific attributes.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 13:

Which protocol is a multicast routing protocol?

A. OSPF

B. BGP

C. PIM

D. IS-IS

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

You are enabling 802.1X authentication on an EX Series device. You are configuring the switch in the conference room where you will have non-employees with devices that do not support 802.1X authentication connecting to your network. You must ensure that these users can connect to your network but are restricted to Internet access only.

What should you do to accomplish this task?

A. You must add a RADIUS account for each user and assign them to the appropriate VLAN.

B. You should ensure that the server-fail failback feature is enabled and users are assigned to the appropriate VLAN.

C. You should assign a guest VLAN to the interfaces and isolate that VLAN to Internet access only.

D. You should configure a server-reject VLAN to the interfaces and isolate that VLAN to Internet access only.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Computers on the network are assigned IP addresses from DHCP server based on the MAC address of the computer. The network administrator wants computes assigned to a VLAN using the computer\’s IP addresses, regardless of where the computers are plugged into the network.

In this scenario, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The MAC RADIUS feature can query a RADIUS server to dynamically assign a VLAN to a host based on its MAC address.

B. DHCP snooping can be enabled to determine with which VLAN a device should be associated when it receives an IP address.

C. 802.1X authentication can query the DHCP server to identify the VLAN that a device should be assigned.

D. 802.1X authentication can assign a VLAN to a device based on the user that is logged into the device.

Correct Answer: AD


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Question 1:

Employees at ABC.com use computers running Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The employees use Microsoft Outlook 2010 to connect to the IMAP based company email server.

A user in the Human Resources (HR) department wants to send a confidential email to a manager. How can the HR user ensure that the manager sees a “Please treat this as Confidential” message in the information bar of the email?

A. By adding a digital signature to the email.

B. By setting the sensitivity level to Private.

C. By setting the sensitivity level to Confidential.

D. By setting the importance level to High.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

You work in the Finance department at ABC.com. Employees at ABC.com use computers running Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The company email system runs Microsoft Exchange Server 2010. All company employees

use Microsoft Outlook 2010 for their email clients.

You create a task in Microsoft Outlook to look through some accounts figures. You send the task to an Accounts Administrator named Mia. Mia informs you that she has no spare time before the task due date and declines the task.

You open the returned task and attempt to modify the due date. However, you discover that you are unable to modify the due date.

What do you need to do before you can modify the task due date?

A. You need to categorize the task.

B. You need to tick the Reminder checkbox.

C. You need to become the owner of the task.

D. You need to select the Unassigned Copy option.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

A user named Clive works as the Finance Manager at ABC.com. The company email system runs Microsoft Exchange Server 2010. All company employees use Microsoft Outlook 2010 for their email clients.

Clive has many scheduled meetings and appointments in his calendar. Clive opens Outlook then opens his calendar. He discovers that many of the meetings and appointments are missing.

How can Clive display all his meetings and appointments?

A. By configuring the correct date on his computer.

B. By modifying the Show Time As setting.

C. By clearing any filters in the calendar view.

D. By clicking the New Items icon on the Home tab in the ribbon.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Employees at ABC.com use computers running Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The company email system runs Microsoft Exchange Server 2010. All company employees use Microsoft Outlook 2010 for their email clients.

Jane is composing an email. She has written the text of the email and now wants to change the format of the email, the layout of the text and the color of the text.

What is the easiest way for Jane to modify the email?

A. She should create a new email with the required formatting then copy the text into the new email.

B. She should use the Proofing options on the Review tab.

C. She should use the Change Styles option on the Format Text tab.

D. She should use the Themes option on the Options tab.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Employees at ABC.com use computers running Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The employees use Microsoft Outlook 2010 to connect to the Microsoft Exchange 2010 company email server. A user named Tanya has searched her local address books for the email address of customer. However her searches were unsuccessful. She now wants to search an external address book.

What type of address book should Tanya search?

A. She should search the Global Address List.

B. She should search a Contact Group.

C. She should search an Internet Directory Services (LDAP) directory.

D. She should search the Outlook Cache.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Employees at ABC.com use computers running Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The employees use Microsoft Outlook 2010 to connect to the Microsoft Exchange 2010 company email server.

Jane\’s Contacts list in Outlook is shared. Jane is adding a new contact. The contact details are confidential. Jane wants to prevent other users from viewing details of the new contact.

Which option should Jane select when creating the contact?

A. She should select the Follow Up option.

B. She should select the Private option.

C. She should select the New Contact Group option.

D. She should select the Categorize option.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

You work as an IT Manager at ABC.com. Employees at ABC.com use computers running Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The company email system runs Microsoft Exchange Server 2010. All company employees use Microsoft Outlook 2010 for their email clients.

You need to schedule some out of hours work to upgrade the company accounts system. The upgrade must take place during a weekend.

You have three possible weekends available to do the work. You need to send an email to other members of the IT team so see which of the three weekends they would be available. You want to view the response of each of the IT team

members.

You create a new email. What should you do next?

A. You should request a Read Receipt to the email.

B. You should add Voting Buttons to the email.

C. You should attach a meeting request to the email.

D. You should select the Follow Up option in the email.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

You work as a Support Analyst at ABC.com. Employees at ABC.com use computers running Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The employees use Microsoft Outlook 2010 to connect to the Microsoft Exchange 2010 company

email server. The email server is configured for Exchange, POP3, IMAP and HTTP connections.

You receive a call from a user saying that they are trying to perform a search for a public folder. He has the Search box to open the Search tab. The user reports that when they click the Search Tools button, there is no Find Public Folder

option.

How can you solve the user\’s problem?

A. By configuring the Indexing Options in the user\’s Outlook to include the Public Folders.

B. By configuring the user\’s Outlook to use an IMAP account.

C. By configuring the user\’s Outlook to use a Microsoft Exchange account.

D. By configuring the Internet Directory Service in the user\’s Outlook.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Employees at ABC.com use computers running Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The employees use Microsoft Outlook 2010 to connect to the IMAP based company email server.

David works as the Sales Manager. His Inbox contains many folders, one for each customer of the company. Each folder contains hundreds of emails, some of which contain attachments.

David wants to be able to view every email from every customer that has an attachment.

How can David group together all the emails the have attachments?

A. By using the Arrange By > Attachments option on his Inbox.

B. By adding a folder to his Favorites.

C. By configuring a Search Folder.

D. By using the Clear Offline Items option.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

You work as a Systems Administrator at ABC.com. Employees at ABC.com use computers running Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The employees use Microsoft Outlook 2010 to connect to the Microsoft Exchange 2010

company email server. The email server is configured for Exchange, POP3, IMAP and HTTP connections.

You use Outlook 2010 on your work computer to access your company email. You also use Outlook 2010 on your home computer to access your company email.

You want to be able to access your company email from any computer such as a computer in an Internet Cafe or an airport terminal.

Which technology should you use to access your company email?

A. An email account configured POP3 access.

B. An email account configured for Outlook Anywhere (RPC over HTTP) access.

C. An email account configured IMAP access.

D. An email account configured Outlook Web Access.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

You work in the Sales department at ABC.com. Employees at ABC.com use computers running Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The employees use Microsoft Outlook 2010 to connect to the POP3 based company email server.

You are composing an email to send to the Sales Manager before a Sales meeting. You attach a Microsoft Excel spreadsheet containing some sales figures and a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation containing a sales plan for the next quarter. You discover that the two files appear in the body of the email as opposed to appearing in an “Attached” field below the Subject Line.

Why do the attachments appear in the body of the email?

A. Because you do not have an account configured.

B. Because the email is in HTML format.

C. Because the email is in RTF format.

D. Because you used the Insert > Outlook Item option to attach the files.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Employees at ABC.com use computers running Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The employees use Microsoft Outlook 2010 to connect to the IMAP based company email server.

A user in the Human Resources (HR) department wants to send an email containing personal information to her manager. How can the HR user ensure that the manager sees a “Please treat this as Personal” message in the information bar of the email?

A. By inserting a text box into the email.

B. By setting the sensitivity level to Personal.

C. By setting the sensitivity level to Private.

D. By setting the importance level to High.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

You work as a Sales Manager at ABC.com. Employees at ABC.com use computers running Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The company email system runs Microsoft Exchange Server 2010. All company employees use

Microsoft Outlook 2010 for their email clients.

You have received an email from a supplier that contains a price list for their product. The email has a brochure describing the product attached to it in the form of a PDF file.

You receive a similar email from a rival supplier. The email also contains an attached PDF brochure for their product.

You compose an email to other company managers. The email contains a proposed sales strategy along with the benefits of using each of the two suppliers.

You want to include the two emails from the suppliers as attachments in your sales strategy email. The attached supplier emails must include their attached brochure PDFs.

How should you configure your email?

A. You should navigate to the Insert tab and use the Attach File option.

B. You should navigate to the Insert tab and use the Object option.

C. You should navigate to the Insert tab and use the Quick Parts option.

D. You should navigate to the Insert tab and use the Outlook Item option.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Employees at ABC.com use computers running Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The employees use Microsoft Outlook 2010 to connect to the IMAP based company email server. Tanya works in the Human Resources (HR)

department. She wants to send a confidential email to another employee named Sally in the HR department.

Tanya wants to ensure that Sally is unable to copy or print the email. She also wants to ensure that Sally is unable to forward the email to anyone else.

How can Tanya apply the required restrictions to the email?

A. By using Information Rights Management.

B. By marking the email as Private.

C. By requesting an S/MIME Receipt.

D. By encrypting the email.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Employees at ABC.com use computers running Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The company email system runs Microsoft Exchange Server 2010. All company employees use Microsoft Outlook 2010 for their email clients.

Jane is composing an email. Jane wants to create a large capital letter at the start of a paragraph n the email. The first letter of the paragraph should be as large as three lines of the paragraph text. How can Jane achieve the desired result?

A. By using a WordArt letter at the start of the paragraph.

B. By selecting the first letter of the paragraph and selecting the Grow Font option on the Format Text tab.

C. By selecting the Drop Cap option on the Insert tab.

D. By using the Text Box option on the Insert tab.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Identify from the following options which ensure that the data displays on the page in a way that is easy to

view and interpret?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. The Padding options at single level of your document

B. The Format options at various levels of your document

C. The Page break options at various levels of your document

D. The Format options at single level of your document

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

How much impact does data tracking have on the data size of a Web Intelligence document (WID)

Compared to the same document without data tracking?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. It will stay the same size.

B. It will increase two times.

C. It will increase three times.

D. It will increase by 50% on each refresh.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

What are the ways of adding breaks In the Web Intelligence Desktop application?

There are 2 correct answers to this question

Response:

A. Click on the origin where you want to insert a break

B. In the Analysis toolbox, on the Display tab, by clicking Break

C. The row or column where you want to add the break and selecting Break>Add Break

D. In the text, on the Design tab, by clicking Break

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

What is the procedure to Display the data in the table as an image that maintains the original formatting?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Right-click the table and, from the contextual menu, select Copy

B. Drag data in a table in the target application and you can add the data contained in the table, click copy and paste

C. Drag and drop the table from Web Intelligence to the target application

D. Right- click the table to the target application and maintain the formatting from Web Intelligence

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which reporting tool should you use to create a Web Intelligence document (WID) directly from an Excel

data source?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Crystal Reports

B. Desktop Intelligence

C. Web Intelligence in InfoView

D. Web Intelligence Rich Client

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which three statements are true about alerters? There are 3 correct answers to this question. Response:

A. You can apply alerters to charts.

B. You can apply multiple alerters to one block.

C. You can apply the same alerter to multiple blocks.

D. You can control the order in which alerters are applied.

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 7:

Which two Web Intelligence Rich Client authentication methods enable you to export Web Intelligence

documents (WID) to the Central Management Server (CMS)?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. LTM

B. LDAP

C. Offline

D. Enterprise

E. Standalone

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

Which two statements are true of contexts? There are 2 correct answers to this question. Response:

A. You can combine objects in different contexts.

B. You cannot combine objects in different contexts.

C. You can combine any object within the same context to create a query.

D. You can combine only measures within the same context to create a query.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 9:

Which three statements are true of calculation contexts? There are 3 correct answers to this question. Response:

A. If no context is defined the default context is assumed.

B. You can use NoFilter() as an extended syntax keyword when using contexts.

C. The ForEach context operator automatically takes the dimensions in the block into account.

D. You must place parentheses around the values listed after the Where keyword when using the Where operator.

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 10:

Where can you set the priority options for saving a Web Intelligence document (WID) to Microsoft Excel?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Web Intelligence

B. InfoView Preferences

C. Microsoft Excel File Options

D. Web Intelligence Rich Client

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Where in a Web Intelligence report do you view merged objects in BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI

4.x?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Report Properties tab

B. Data tab

C. Navigation tab

D. Object Properties tab

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which two statements are true about Page Layout of a report?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. It displays the definition of the block.

B. It displays the report page by default.

C. It defines what the report will look like when printed.

D. It defines what the report will look like in PDF mode.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 13:

Which three methods can you use to combine queries using the Web Intelligence Rich Client?

There are 3 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. UNION

B. MINUS

C. UNION ALL

D. INTERSECT

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 14:

Select the correct sequence To Format a Bar Chart?

Please choose the correct answer. Response:

A. Report Element>Chart>Insert Column Chart

B. Chart> Report Element >Insert Column Chart

C. Chart> Insert Column Chart >Report Element

D. Insert Column Chart>Chart>Report Element

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which two are calculation context types? There are 2 correct answers to this question. Response:

A. Input

B. Output

C. Logical

D. Conditional

Correct Answer: AB


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Question 1:

Grayson created an application that is deployed on servers and with local replicas on individual user workstations. What feature of IBM Notes can limit the data deployed to local replicas?

A. Managed Replicas

B. Database Encryption

C. Master Database Templates

D. Selective Replication Formula

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

James has a large number of image resources and he knows that the name of the image resource will change when it is updated. How can he add an alias name to the image resource?

A. After the image resource name, type a vertical bar (|) followed by the alias name.

B. Image resource names are chosen when they are created and cannot be renamed.

C. Open the Image resource in the IBM Domino Designer client and add the alias name to the “Alias” field.

D. Image resources are chosen at the time they are created and do not support an Alias name.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

James will need to use IBM LotusScript in order to modify the Calendar Profile stored in his mail file. Given the following snippet of code, what would be the correct line for instantiating the Calendar Profile? Dim session As New NotesSession Dim db As NotesDatabase Dim doc As NotesDocument Set db=session.CurrentDatabase

A. Set doc=db.GetProfileDocument(“CalendarProfile”)

B. Set doc=db.SetProfileDocument(“CalendarProfile”)

C. Set doc=session.GetProfileDocument(“CalendarProfile”)

D. Set doc=session.SetProfileDocument(“CalendarProfile”)

Correct Answer: A


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What is the primary purpose of a master template?

A. It is required to use XPages.

B. It is required to use external data sources.

C. It prevents users from updating applications.

D. It keeps application instances consistent in design.

Correct Answer: D


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An IBM Domino application performs certain operations, such as DDE-related functions, that are not available in all platform versions of IBM Notes and Domino. What function can be used to determine the underlying operating system?

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C. @Platform([Specific])

D. @Platform([ClientType])

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Mary has written an IBM Domino XPage application called myxsp in myDb.nsf on myServer. The end users are reporting performance issues on first use after the server starts. What two things could Mary do to improve performance of the application? (Choose two.)

A. Set XPagesPreload=1 in the server notes.ini.

B. Add myxsp to the JavaUserClasses in the notes.ini.

C. Reduce the Java hap size via HTTPJavamaxheapsize notes.ini parameter.

D. Increase the Java Heap size via HTTPJavamaxheapsize notes.ini parameter.

E. Set XPagesPreloadDB=myServer!!myDb.nsf/myxsp.xsp in the server notes.ini.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 7:

The Debug_AMGR notes.ini parameter can be used to debug IBM Domino agents running in which context?

A. run on a client

B. scheduled via AMGR

C. called through HTTP via a browser

D. during a test running in the IBM Domino Designer client

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

What data does the Remote Debugger Utility window include?

A. the program call stack of the agent at the time of error

B. the line number of the agent running at the time of error

C. breakpoints, program calls, print output and agent variables

D. program calls, print output and the UNID of each document written by the agent

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which statement is true with regards to the usage of WebQuerySave event?

A. runs the agent after field input validation formulas are run and after the document is actually saved to disk

B. runs the agent before field input validation formulas are run and after the document is actually saved to disk

C. runs the agent after field input validation formulas are run and before the document is actually saved to disk

D. runs the agent before field input validation formulas are run and before the document is actually saved to disk

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which shared design element gives a developer the ability to control many aspects of the page layout, including headers, links, text, fonts, styles, color, and margins?

A. HTML files

B. image resources

C. JavaScript libraries

D. cascading style sheets

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Chloe would like to add an alias for one of her forms. What is one way she could do that?

A. Add the alias to the “Alias Names” section in the form properties.

B. Add a $Alias item to the form design note with the alias as its value.

C. Add a computed field named “Alias” to the form and set its value to the alias.

D. Add a “|” (pipe symbol) and the alias after the Name specified in the form properties.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which statement is correct when using a theme in an XPage application?

A. Themes are restricted to using CSS styles.

B. Themes can be used in any CSS style sheet.

C. Themes allow the designer to set and control any XML property.

D. Themes are a standard XML design element and can be used in any HTML application including XPages.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Kenneth is using a Computed for display Text field on his form. He would like for new documents created with the form to display the data from that field in a column in a view. What is one of the things that he could to do to be able to do that?

A. Change the field Type to Editable.

B. Populate the Column value property of the field.

C. Enable the “Available to public views” property of the form.

D. Use the @Text function in the Input Translation event of the field.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Lauren is creating a new form in a database and wants to add an action to that form for her users. How does Lauren add the action to her form?

A. Lauren is not able to add an action to a form as actions are available for views only.

B. Lauren would right-click in the QueryOpen event of the form and choose Insert Action.

C. Lauren would right-click while in the Action section under Code in the Application Eclipse view and choose New Action.

D. While Lauren has that form open in the IBM Domino Designer client, choose the menu option Create > Action > Action.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which three field types allow multiple values? (Choose three.)

A. Text

B. Listbox

C. Rich Text

D. Checkbox

E. Combobox

F. Radio Button

Correct Answer: ABD


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Question 1:

A customer is a cloud provider who needs a new storage array. They want a solution that has built-in multi-tenancy features. Why should you propose HPE 3PAR StoreServ to the customer?

A. It divides controller nodes into groups for multiple tenants.

B. It includes the virtual domains feature as part of all-inclusive licensing.

C. It divides drives into separate pools for multiple tenants.

D. It includes the NPARs feature for physical separation of the array into tenant areas.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/4aa3-3516enw.pdf


Question 2:

What must be taken into account when using the HPE FlexFabric 5945 4-slot Switch as a ToR switch in a solution?

A. adding in a Network Analytics Engine license

B. specifying a fan tray with the appropriate direction of airflow

C. adding in an Intelligent Resilient Framework license

D. selecting power supplies with adequate reserve PoE capacity

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/uk/en/product-catalog/networking/networking-switches/pip.hpe-flexfabric-5945-switch-series.1010931108.html


Question 3:

A customer wants to implement a container platform across their enterprise data center. They need to automate hardware and software configurations to quickly provision and deploy at scale. Which authentication solution should you recommend?

A. Red Hat Ansible Tower

B. OpenStack on OpenStack

C. Chef

D. DevStack

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A customer contacts you for assistance with an expansion of their current HPE Synergy environment. The existing environment contains:

1.

one Synergy 12000 frame

2.

two Composers

3.

eight SY480 Compute Modules – 1 CPU – 384GB RAM – 3820C 10/20GbE CNA

4.

one D3940 Storage Module

The new requirement is 16Gb FC connectivity to a newly-deployed 3PAR storage array.

Which components should you include? (Choose two.)

A. Synergy 3830C Host Bus Adapter

B. two QSFP AOC/DAC cables for ICM clustering

C. a second CPU per Compute Module

D. HPE Synergy FC License Upgrade per Composer pair

E. an additional Virtual Connect SE 40Gb F8

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=c05061206


Question 5:

A customer running multiple HPE Synergy frames wants to change a parameter in the BIOS of all their VMware servers, based on the recommendations of their VMware team. Where is the most efficient location to make this change?

A. iLO Federation

B. Server Profile Template

C. Logical Enclosure

D. ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU)

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

In preparation for a customer presentation, you need to provide meaningful estimates of cooling requirements for HPE ProLiant, HPE Apollo, and HPE Synergy servers. What should you use?

A. HPE Synergy Planning Tool

B. HPE Proposal Web

C. HPE Server Memory Configurator

D. HPE Power Advisor

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA6-2925ENW.pdf


Question 7:

A customer requires front panel access for their Gen10 servers. What is required to meet this need?

A. a USB 2.0 Ethernet adapter

B. an installed iLo Advance license

C. Secure Boot enabled

D. Two-factor authentication enabled

Correct Answer: A

HPE iLO Service port – How to use it?


Question 8:

You are designing a highly-available SQL database solution, following HPE reference architectures for Microsoft SQL 2017 on Linux. Which HA design factors should be considered? (Choose two.)

A. Real-Time Operational Analytics

B. Transparent Data Encryption

C. Always On Failover Cluster Instance (FCI)

D. Read-Scale Availability Groups

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/a00036336enw.pdf


Question 9:

A customer is asking for the latest version of the HPE Nimble Storage Integration Guide. Where can the customer download the guide?

A. HPE SPOCK

B. HPE Product Bulletin

C. HPE InfoSight

D. HPE Information Library

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/Application-Integration/Announcing-the-release-of-HPE-Nimble-Storage-PowerShell-Toolkit/td-p/7017899#.XgCDWmbVLiw


Question 10:

A customer is interested in a Synergy solution. They need 100 compute modules and expect the workload to double in two years. They ask for the minimum number of management ports they will need to connect Synergy frames into their management network. How should you reply?

A. FLMs from all frames connect into a management ring, and the management ring connects into their management network with two uplinks.

B. FLMs from all frames connect to two external switches, and these two switches connect into their management network.

C. Synergy solution only allows 15 frames to be interconnected, so growth in customer\’s workload is not supported.

D. The RJ-45 ports on the front of each frame are connected to an external switch, which is connected into their management network.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You are designing a network topology for a customer. The customer is looking for a large-scale Layer 2 fabric, with redundant links and load balancing, while avoiding traditional STP, RSTP, and MSTP protocols. Which switch will support these features with industry standard technology?

A. HPE FlexFabric 5980

B. HPE FlexFabric 12902E

C. Aruba 8325

D. HPE FlexFabric 5710

Correct Answer: B

https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/c04111378.pdf


Question 12:

You propose an HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8200 array for a customer who needs 900 TiB raw storage space. After the proposal was created, the customer went through with a competitor acquisition. Now they need to accommodate 1600 TiB. What should you propose to the customer?

A. Instead of 3PAR StoreServ 8200 2-node configuration, propose an 8400 4-node configuration with the needed amount of drives.

B. Instead of 3PAR StoreServ 8200 2-node configuration, propose an 8400 2-node configuration with a 2-node upgrade and the needed amount of drives.

C. Upgrade the 3PAR StoreServ 8200 2-node configuration with four additional nodes and the needed amount of drives.

D. Upgrade the 3PAR StoreServ 8200 2-node configuration with Data Optimization Software Suite and the needed amount of drives.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

In preparation for a customer presentation, you need to create a validated configuration, including services. Which tool should you use?

A. HPE One Configuration Advanced

B. HPE Power Advisor

C. HPE Server Memory Configurator

D. HPE Synergy Planning Tool

E. HPE Proposal Web

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A customer has the following design requirements:

1.

Support for 16Gb Fibre Channel

2.

All SAN elements must be managed by the SAN team

3.

All SAN elements need to be managed by the existing tools

Which component must be included in the design to meet the customer\’s requirements?

A. HPE Virtual Connect SE 16Gb FC Module for HPE Synergy

B. HPE Virtual Connect SE 40Gb FC Module for HPE Synergy

C. HPE Synergy 8Gb FC License Upgrade

D. Brocade 16Gb Fibre Channel SAN Switch Module for HPE Synergy

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/c04790440.pdf


Question 15:

A customer needs a VMware Horizon VDI solution with accelerated GPU support. They need the highest density GPU solution available. Which solution should you recommend?

A. HPE WS460c Gen9 Graphics Server Blade with graphics expansion

B. HPE Apollo r2600 with RCM Module

C. HPE Synergy SY 480 with multi-MXM expansion module

D. HPE DL360 Gen10 with primary GPU riser

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=emr_na-a00006274en_us


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Question 1:

Which statement best defines Replication Factor 2 (RF2)?

A. Data will be written locally, and a second copy then will be replicated to another cluster

B. Data will be written locally, and a second copy to another disk group

C. Data will be written locally, and a second copy goes to a remote site

D. Data will be written locally, and a second copy goes to another node in the same cluster

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

What Nutanix product provides multi-cloud cost and security governance?

A. Era

B. Leap

C. Beam

D. Flow

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator has received the error shown in the exhibit.

Which two steps should the administrator take, in preparation for opening a Nutanix support ticket? (Choose two.)

A. Get the Block Serial Number from the Hardware Page

B. Get the Node Serial Number from IPMI

C. Get the DIMM Slot Number from the node BIOS

D. Get the AOS version from the Settings Page

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is indicated by the yellow area of the chart?

A. Normal utilization

B. Critical alerts

C. Warning alerts

D. Abnormal utilization

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator has created a new VM, but when accessing the console to monitor the guest install, the administrator sees the error shown in the exhibit

What is the likely cause of this issue?

A. The installation media was not mounted.

B. The wrong type of disk was specified.

C. The boot order is incorrectly configured.

D. The Nuianix VirtlO driver (SO was not mounted.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which Nutanix cluster component is responsible for the cluster configuration?

A. Cassandra

B. Stargate

C. Zookeeper D. Zeus

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

An administrator has a SQL VM running, which is experiencing high disk latency. What could the administrator do to alleviate this?

A. Increase CPU and Memory on the CVM

B. Attach additional Volume Groups to the VM

C. Add more CPU and Memory to the VM

D. Create another Storage Container

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

A customer is running a three-node Nutanix cluster.

Which data optimization feature cannot be enabled in this scenario?

A. Post Compression

B. Map-reduce dedup

C. Erasure Coding

D. Inline Compression

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

An administrator needs to replace a node in a three-node cluster. The health status for the environment is good and the cluster is able to support a single node failure.

Which step must be performed first?

A. Remove the failed node from the cluster

B. Verify hypervisor versions

C. Plug in all network cables

D. Expand the cluster with the new node

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which policy specifies that a selected VM will only run on a specific group of nodes?

A. Isolation

B. Anti-affinity

C. Affinity

D. Fixed

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit: Based on the exhibit what can be definitively determined about Host DEMO-AHV-2\’

A. it has performed more on-disk lookups than the other nodes.

B. It\’s cache is undersized compared to the other nodes.

C. The system memory is undersized.

D. It is hosting a higher quantity of VMs than the other nodes.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

An administrator with an AHV cluster notices that time/date stamps in logs for some VMs are not correct. After investigating, the administrator finds that many of their user VMs are set to UTC

What two methods can be used to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Configure NTP within Prism.

B. Configure the VMs time zone inside each guest VM.

C. Configure the time zone for each VM using Prism.

D. Configure NTP inside each guest VM.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 13:

An administrator wants to ensure that a particular VM starts before any other VM in the environment after performing maintenance. How can the administrator achieve this?

A. Marie the VM as a High Priority VM in Prism Central

B. Mark the VM for Host Affinity in Prism Element

C. Mark the VM as an Agent VM in Prism Element

D. Mark the VM as a High Priority VM in Prism Element

Correct Answer: AC


Question 14:

What are two types of Protection Domains that Nutanix offers for Data Protection? (Choose two.)

A. Metro Availability

B. Snapshots

C. Async DR

D. Consistency Group

Correct Answer: AC


Question 15:

Which two Nutanix features offer the ability to restore a VM? (Choose two.)

A. Data Protection

B. Nutanix Leap

C. Nutanix Flow

D. Site Recovery Manager

Correct Answer: AB