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Question 1:

After a notable event has been closed, how long will the meta data for that event remain in the KV Store by default?

A. 6 months.

B. 9 months.

C. 1 year.

D. 3 months.

Correct Answer: A

By default, notable event metadata is archived after six months to keep the KV store from growing too large.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/EA/TrimNECollections


Question 2:

Which of the following is a best practice for identifying the most effective services with which to start an iterative ITSI deployment?

A. Only include KPIs if they will be used in multiple services.

B. Analyze the business to determine the most critical services.

C. Focus on low-level services.

D. Define a large number of key services early.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/MKA


Question 3:

Which deep dive swim lane type does not require writing SPL?

A. Event lane.

B. Automatic lane.

C. Metric lane.

D. KPI lane.

Correct Answer: B

Among all the search configurations, automatic lane doesn\’t need to be written in Splunk Processing language.


Question 4:

Which of the following items apply to anomaly detection? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Use AD on KPIs that have an unestablished baseline of data points. This allows the ML pattern to perform it\’s magic.

B. A minimum of 24 hours of data is needed for anomaly detection, and a minimum of 4 entities for cohesive analysis.

C. Anomaly detection automatically generates notable events when KPI data diverges from the pattern.

D. There are 3 types of anomaly detection supported in ITSI: adhoc, trending, and cohesive.

Correct Answer: BC

The KPI must be split by entity, and a minimum of four entities is required.

If the KPI diverges from the normal pattern, ITSI creates a notable event in Episode Review.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/AD


Question 5:

Which of the following is a best practice when configuring maintenance windows?

A. Disable any glass tables that reference a KPI that is part of an open maintenance window.

B. Develop a strategy for configuring a service\’s notable event generation when the service\’s maintenance window is open.

C. Give the maintenance window a buffer, for example, 15 minutes before and after actual maintenance work.

D. Change the color of services and entities that are part of an open maintenance window in the service analyzer.

Correct Answer: C

It\’s a best practice to schedule maintenance windows with a 15- to 30-minute time buffer before and after you start and stop your maintenance work.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/Configure/AboutMW


Question 6:

In Episode Review, what is the result of clicking an episode\’s Acknowledge button?

A. Assign the current user as owner.

B. Change status from New to Acknowledged.

C. Change status from New to In Progress and assign the current user as owner.

D. Change status from New to Acknowledged and assign the current user as owner.

Correct Answer: C

When an episode warrants investigation, the analyst acknowledges the episode, which moves the status from New to In Progress.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/EA/EpisodeOverview


Question 7:

Which glass table feature can be used to toggle displaying KPI values from more than one service on a single widget?

A. Service templates.

B. Service dependencies.

C. Ad-hoc search.

D. Service swapping.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/Visualizations#collapseDesktop8


Question 8:

Which of the following is a characteristic of base searches?

A. Search expression, entity splitting rules, and thresholds are configured at the base search level.

B. It is possible to filter to entities assigned to the service for calculating the metrics for the service\’s KPIs.

C. The fewer KPIs that share a common base search, the more efficiency a base search provides, and anomaly detection is more efficient.

D. The base search will execute whether or not a KPI needs it.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/BaseSearch


Question 9:

What are valid ITSI Glass Table editor capabilities? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Creating glass tables.

B. Correlation search creation.

C. Service swapping configuration.

D. Adding KPI metric lanes to glass tables.

Correct Answer: ACD

Create a glass table to visualize and monitor the interrelationships and dependencies across your IT and

business services.

The service swapping settings are saved and apply the next time you open the glass table.

You can add metrics like KPIs, ad hoc searches, and service health scores that update in real time against

a background that you design. Glass tables show real-time data generated by KPIs and services.

Reference:

https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/GTOverview

https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/ServiceSwap


Question 10:

Which of the following is the best use case for configuring a Multi-KPI Alert?

A. Comparing content between two notable events.

B. Using machine learning to evaluate when data falls outside of an expected pattern.

C. Comparing anomaly detection between two KPIs.

D. Raising an alert when one or more KPIs indicate an outage is occurring.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/MKA


Question 11:

In distributed search, which components need to be installed on instances other than the search head?

A. SA-IndexCreationand SA-ITSI-Licensecheckeron indexers.

B. SA-IndexCreationand SA-ITOA on indexers; SA-ITSI-Licensecheckerand SA-UserAccess on the license master.

C. SA-IndexCreationon idexers; SA-ITSI-Licensecheckerand SA-UserAccesson the license master.

D. SA-ITSI-Licensecheckeron indexers.

Correct Answer: A

SA-IndexCreation is required on all indexers. For non-clustered, distributed environments, copy SA-IndexCreation to $SPLUNK_HOME/etc/apps/ on individual indexers.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/Install/InstallDD


Question 12:

Which of the following describes entities? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Entities must be IT devices, such as routers and switches, and must be identified by either IP value, host name, or mac address.

B. An abstract (pseudo/logical) entity can be used to split by for a KPI, although no entity rules or filtering can be used to limit data to a specific service.

C. Multiple entities can share the same alias value, but must have different role values.

D. To automatically restrict the KPI to only the entities in a particular service, select “Filter to Entities in

Service”.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/KPIfilter


Question 13:

Which of the following accurately describes base searches used for KPIs in a service?

A. Base searches can be used for multiple services.

B. A base search can only be used by its service and all dependent services.

C. All the metrics in a base search are used by one service.

D. All the KPIs in a service use the same base search.

Correct Answer: A

KPI base searches let you share a search definition across multiple KPIs in IT Service Intelligence (ITSI). Create base searches to consolidate multiple similar KPIs, reduce search load, and improve search performance.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/BaseSearch


Question 14:

Which scenario would benefit most by implementing ITSI?

A. Monitoring of business services functionality.

B. Monitoring of system hardware.

C. Monitoring of system process statuses.

D. Monitoring of retail sales metrics.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/AboutSI


Question 15:

ITSI Saved Search Scheduling is configured to use realtime_schedule = 0. Which statement is accurate about this configuration?

A. If this value is set to 0, the scheduler bases its determination of the next scheduled search execution time on the current time.

B. If this value is set to 0, the scheduler bases its determination of the next scheduled search on the last search execution time.

C. If this value is set to 0, the scheduler may skip scheduled execution periods.

D. If this value is set to 0, the scheduler might skip some execution periods to make sure that the scheduler is executing the searches running over the most recent time range.

Correct Answer: B

If set to 0, the scheduler determines the next scheduled search run time based on the last run time for the search. This is called continuous scheduling.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/DFS/1.1.2/DFS/Savedsearchesconf


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Question 1:

Given an EAV-based data model, values for each of the object\’s attributes are stored in

A. type-specific columns on a general purpose attribute-value storage table

B. a type-specific table used for storing all attribute values of the given type for all entities

C. a table specific to both the attributes data type and the given objects entity type

D. type-specific columns on an entity-specific attribute-value storage table

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which one of the following API protocols does native Magento support?

A. XmlRpc

B. REST

C. POST

D. Open Social

E. XQuery

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which one of the following statements is true regarding Mage_Core_Block_Text_List?

A. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List declares its own template for rendering, but the rendered template can be overridden via layout XML.

B. Child blocks of Mage_Core_Block_Text_List are always rendered alphabetically by name.

C. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List will always render all children automatically when it is rendered.

D. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List directly extends Mage_Core_Block_Template.

E. In order to render, the parent block of Mage_Core_Block_Text_List must always be an output block.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

You want to display a grid for a custom collection. After extending Mage_Adminhtml_Block_widget_Grid, which two of these methods should you implement? (Choose two)

A. _getCollection ( )

B. _prepareCollection ( )

C. _prepareColumns ( )

D. toHtml ( )

E. render ( )

Correct Answer: BC


Question 5:

In what order are the routers from the Magento core checked for a matching route?

Default: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Default

CMS: Mage_Cms_Controller_Router

Standard: Mage_Core_Controller_varien_Router_Standard

Admin: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Admin

A. Admin, Standard, CMS, Default

B. Default, CMS, Standard, Admin

C. Admin, CMS, Standard, Default

D. Standard, Admin, Default, CMS

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

When you register an event observer, which two of the following pieces of information are required for it to function? (Choose two)

A. method (or function) name

B. method (or function) arguments

C. class name

D. object type (singleton, model, none, etc)

E. call order

F. active/inactive status

Correct Answer: AC


Question 7:

You have used the “refresh”\’ action on the cache management page for the block html cache type.

Which of the following types of cache record would be cleared?

A. all cache records containing HTML code

B. items for block classes extending Mage_Core_Block_Template only

C. items having at least one of the tags found in the configuration under the xpath global/cache/types/block_html/tags

D. block class items with expired lifetime

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which one of the following accurately describes the purpose of the resource helper classes instantiated through Mage::getResourceHelper?

A. Format values returned by the database for display in templates.

B. Provide a convenient way to modify database table properties.

C. Provide public access to concrete implementations of varien_Db_Adapter_Interface.

D. Provide clean access to another module\’s database tables.

E. Wrap vendor-specific SQL additions into an RDBMS-agnostic interface.

Correct Answer: E


Question 9:

Which of the following node names may be used inside the setup resource declaration to utilize a custom setup class?

A. resourceModel

B. resourceClass

C. setupClass

D. class

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

A custom frontend controller will extend which one of the following classes?

A. Mage_Core_Controller_Front_Action

B. Mage_Adminhtml_Controller_Action

C. Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Front

D. Mage_Core_Controller_Abstract

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which statement describes a model class that extends Mage_Core_Model_Abstract?

A. The model class consists of properties and methods for storing and manipulating data retrieved via separate resource classes responsible for database operations.

B. The model class is responsible for loading the frontend layout templates and responding to page requests via its Action methods (for example, indexAction).

C. The model class does not encapsulate any logic except for logic providing access to the data loaded from the database.

D. The model class is primarily responsible for direct query operations such as retrieving and storing data and then rendering that data to the frontend view.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Assume the following price configuration:

Price: 10 Group price: group=General, price=15 Tier price: group=All Groups, qty=1, price=20 Tier price: group=General, qty=1, price=25

Which price will a customer from the”General”group see on the product view page?

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

How can you update a third-party system with every new order created in Magento?

A. Use the native sales_order.update API call.

B. Use a sales_order_place_after API call.

C. Create an observer in Magento on the sales_order_place_after event.

D. Customize the third-party system to listen to Magento\’s sales__order_place_after event.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which of the following is an advantage to using an EAV-based model instead of a model storing data in a single table?

A. An EAV-based model can be used to store a broader range of data types.

B. A single EAV model can represent objects with dynamic sets of attributes.

C. Data for an EAV data model will load from the database much faster.

D. Use of an EAV architecture automatically de-duplicates data stored in the database.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which of the following should you do in order to add another product attribute to the condition in a shopping cart price rule?

A. Mark the attribute as “Use for Promo Rule Conditions”on the attribute management page in the admin.

B. Override Mage SalesRule Model Rule Condition Product and modify the protected variable $_ruleAttributes.

C. Create an observer on the load sales rule product attributes event.

D. Add another child to the configuration node global/catalog/attributes_to_use_in_sales_rules.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

You need to address the data concerns before creating the data model. What should you do in Power Query Editor?

A. Select Column distribution.

B. Select the sales_amount column and apply a number filter.

C. Select Column profile, and then select the sales_amount column.

D. Transform the sales_amount column to replace negative values with 0.

Correct Answer: D

Scenario: Data Concerns

You are concerned with the quality and completeness of the sales data. You plan to verify the sales data for negative sales amounts.

How to convert negative numbers into positive numb, editor and right click, select

transform, and choose absolute value. That would give the positive number outcome you\’re looking for.

Reference:

https://www.xspdf.com/resolution/50510644.html


Question 2:

You need to create the required relationship for the executive\’s visual. What should you do before you can create the relationship?

A. Change the data type of Sales[region_id] to Whole Number.

B. In the Sales table, add a measure for sum(sales_amount).

C. Change the data type of sales[sales_id] to Text.

D. Change the data type of sales [region_id] to Decimal Number.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

What should you create to meet the reporting requirements of the sales department?

A. a calculated column that use a formula of couMTA(Sales[sales_id]>

B. a calculated measure that uses a formula of couNTROws(Sales)

C. a calculated column that uses a formula of suM(Sales[sales_id])

D. a measure that uses a formula of sw-i(Sales[sales_id])

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

You need to create a relationship between the Weekly_Returns table and the Date table to meet the reporting requirements of the regional managers. What should you do?

A. In the Weekly.Returns table, create a new calculated column named date-id in a format of yyyymmdd and use the calculated column to create a relationship to the Date table.

B. Add the Weekly_Returns data to the Sales table by using related DAX functions.

C. Create a new table based on the Date table where date-id is unique, and then create a many-tomany relationship to Weekly_Return.

Correct Answer: A

Scenario: Region managers require a visual to analyze weekly sales and returns. To relate the two tables we need a common column


Question 5:

You need to provide a solution to provide the sales managers with the required access. What should you include in the solution?

A. Create a security role that has a table filter on the Sales_Manager table where username = UserName()

B. Create a security role that has a table filter on the Region_Manager table where sales_manager_id = UserPrincipalName().

C. Create a security role that has a table filter on the Sales_Manager table where name = UserName().

D. Create a security role that has a table filter on the Sales_Manager table where username = sales_manager_id.

Correct Answer: B

Scenario: The region_id column can be managed by only one sales manager.

You can use Username() or userprincipalname() in DAX with Row-Level Security.

Within Power BI Desktop, username() will return a user in the format of DOMAIN\User and userprincipalname() will return a user in the format of [email protected].

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/admin/service-admin-rls


Question 6:

You need to create relationships to meet the reporting requirements of the customer service department. What should you create?

A. an additional date table named ShipDate, a one-to-many relationship from Sales[sales_date_id] to Date[date_id], and a one-to-many relationship from Sales[sales_ship_date_id] to ShipDate[date_id]

B. an additional date table named ShipDate, a many-to-many relationship from Sales[sales_date_id] to Date[date_id], and a many-to-many relationship from Sales[sales_ship_date_id] to ShipDate[date_id]

C. a one-to-many relationship from Date[date_id] to Sales[sales_date_id] and another one-to-many relationship from Date[date_id] to Weekly_Returns[week_id]

D. a one-to-many relationship from Sales[sales_date_id] to Date[date_id] and a one-to-many relationship from Sales[sales_ship_date_id] to Date[date_id]

E. a one-to-many relationship from Date[date_id] to Sales[sales_date_id] and another one-to-many relationship from Date[date_id] to Sales[sales_ship_date_id]

Correct Answer: E

Scenario: The customer service department requires a visual that can be filtered by both sales month and ship month independently.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/transform-model/desktop-relationships-understand


Question 7:

You need to recommend a strategy to consistently define the business unit, department, and product category data and make the data usable across reports. What should you recommend?

A. Create a shared dataset for each standardized entity.

B. Create dataflows for the standardized data and make the dataflows available for use in all imported datasets.

C. For every report, create and use a single shared dataset that contains the standardized data.

D. For the three entities, create exports of the data from the Power Bl model to Excel and store the data in Microsoft OneDrive for others to use as a source.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which DAX expression should you use to get the ending balances in the balance sheet reports?

A. CALCULATE ( SUM( BalanceSheet [BalanceAmount] ), DATESQTD( \’Date\'[Date] ) )

B. CALCULATE ( SUM( BalanceSheet [BalanceAmount] ), LASTDATE( \’Date\'[Date] ) )

C. FIRSTNONBLANK ( \’Date\’ [Date] SUM( BalanceSheet[BalanceAmount] ) )

D. CALCULATE ( MAX( BalanceSheet[BalanceAmount] ), LASTDATE( \’Date\’ [Date] ) )

Correct Answer: A

Scenario: At least one of the balance sheet reports in the quarterly reporting package must show the ending balances for the quarter, as well as for the previous quarter. DATESQTD returns a table that contains a column of the dates for the quarter to date, in the current context.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dax/datesqtd-function-dax


Question 9:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a clustered bar chart that contains a measure named Salary as the value and a field named Employee as the axis. Salary is present in the data as numerical amount representing US dollars.

You need to create a reference line to show which employees are above the median salary.

Solution: You create an average line by using the Salary measure.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Instead create a percentile line by using the Salary measure and set the percentile to 50%.

Note: The 50th percentile is also known as the median or middle value where 50 percent of observations fall below.

Reference: https://dash-intel.com/powerbi/statistical_functions_percentile.php


Question 10:

You have a Microsoft Power BI data model that contains three tables named Orders, Date, and City. There is a one-to-many relationship between Date and Orders and between City and Orders.

The model contains two row-level security (RLS) roles named Role1 and Role2. Role1 contains the following filter.

City[State Province] = “Kentucky”

Role2 contains the following filter.

Date[Calendar Year] = 2020

If a user is a member of both Role1 and Role2, what data will they see in a report that uses the model?

A. The user will see data for which the State Province value is Kentucky and the Calendar Year is 2020.

B. The user will see data for which the State Province value is Kentucky or the Calendar Year is 2020.

C. The user will see only data for which the State Province value is Kentucky.

D. The user will receive an error and will not be able to see the data in the report.

Correct Answer: B

When a report user is assigned to multiple roles, RLS filters become additive. It means report users can see table rows that represent the union of those filters.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/guidance/rls-guidance


Question 11:

You create the following step by using Power Query Editor.

=

Table.ReplaceValue(SalesLT_Address,”1318″,”1319″,Replacer.ReplaceText,{“AddressLine 1”})

A row has a value of 21318 Lasalle Street in the AddressLine1 column. What will the value be when the step is applied?

A. 1318

B. 1319

C. 21318 Lasalle Street

D. 21319 Lasalle Street

Correct Answer: D

Replace the text “ur” with the text “or” in the table.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerquery-m/table-replacevalue


Question 12:

Your company has training videos that are published to Microsoft Stream. You need to surface the videos directly in a Microsoft Power BI dashboard. Which type of tile should you add?

A. video

B. custom streaming data

C. text box

D. web content

Correct Answer: B

The only way to visualize a streaming dataset is to add a tile and use the streaming dataset as a custom streaming data source.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/service-real-time-streaming


Question 13:

You are configuring a Microsoft Power Bl data model to enable users to ask natural language questions by using QandA. You have a table named Customer that has the following measure.

Customer Count = DISTINCTCOUNT(Customer[CustomerID])

Users frequently refer to customers as subscribers.

You need to ensure that the users can get a useful result for “subscriber count” by using QandA. The solution must minimize the size of the model.

What should you do?

A. Add a description of “subscriber count” to the Customer Count measure.

B. Set Summarize By to None for the CustomerlD column.

C. Add a description of “Subscriber” to the Customer table.

D. Add a synonym of “subscriber” to the Customer table.

Correct Answer: D

You can add synonyms to tables and columns.

Note: This step applies specifically to QandA (and not to Power BI reports in general). Users often have a variety of terms they use to refer to the same thing, such as total sales, net sales, total net sales. You can add these synonyms to tables and columns in the Power BI model.

This step applies specifically to QandA (and not to Power BI reports in general). Users often have a variety of terms they use to refer to the same thing, such as total sales, net sales, total net sales. You can add these synonyms to tables and columns in the Power BI model.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/natural-language/q-and-a-best-practices


Question 14:

Your company plans to completely separate development and production assets such as datasets, reports, and dashboards in Microsoft Power BI.

You need to recommend an application lifecycle strategy. The solution must minimize access to production assets and prevent end users from viewing the development assets.

What should you recommend?

A. Create production reports in a separate workspace that uses a shared dataset from the development workspace. Grant the end users access to the production workspace.

B. Create one workspace for development. From the new workspace, publish an app for production.

C. Create a workspace for development and a workspace for production. From the production workspace,publish an app.

D. In one workspace, create separate copies of the assets and append DEV to the names of the copied assets. Grant the end users access to the workspace.

Correct Answer: C

Use different work stages (Development, Test, and Production).

Deploy from the Development workspace.

Reference:

Application Lifecycle Management in Power BI


Question 15:

You use an R visual to produce a map of 500,000 customers. You include the values of CustomerID, Latitude, and Longitude in the fields sent to the visual. Each customer ID is unique.

In powerbi.com, when users load the visual, they only see some of the customers.

What is the cause of the issue?

A. The visual was built by using a different version of R.

B. The data comes from a Microsoft SQL Server source.

C. The data is deduplicated.

D. Too many records were sent to the visual.

Correct Answer: D

R visuals in the Power BI service have a few limitations including:

Data size limitations ?data used by the R visual for plotting is limited to 150,000 rows. If more than 150,000 rows are selected, only the top 150,000 rows are used and a message is displayed on the image.

Additionally, the input data has a limit of 250 MB.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/service-r-visuals


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Question 1:

A Citrix Administrator has deployed a non-domain joined StoreFront Server.

Which two options should the administrator be aware of with this deployment? (Choose two.)

A. Authentication occurs at the Delivery Controller

B. Server groups are NOT supported

C. Server groups are supported

D. Authentication occurs at the Domain Controller

Correct Answer: AB


Question 2:

A Citrix Administrator has created a new Delivery Controller and needs to join it to an existing Site to increase site redundancy. Which database permissions will the administrator need?

A. db_securityadmin and dbm_monitor permissions

B. db_owner and db_datawriter permissions

C. db_accessadmin and dbcreator permissions

D. db_securityadmin and db_owner

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configures the following policies in a XenDesktop Site environment, in descending priority order:

1.

“Marketing Office A” has a filter on Marketing users. Client Network Drives is disabled; Client Fixed Drives is enabled.

2.

“Marketing Office B” has a filter on Marketing Users\’ Internal IP. Client Network Drives is disabled; Client Fixed Drives is enabled.

3.

“Accounting” has a filter on Accounting Users. Client Network Drives is enabled; Client Fixed Drives is NOT configured.

4.

“Baseline” configured without a filter. Client Network Drives and Client Fixed Drives are both disabled. Based on these policies, what will Accounting users be able to access?

A. Client Fixed and Network Drives

B. Client Fixed Drives only

C. Client Network Drives only

D. Neither the Client Network Drive nor the Client Fixed Drive

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is troubleshooting a case where policies are NOT being applied as expected to a XenDesktop session. Citrix policies are configured in both Citrix Studio and Group Policy Management Console (GPMC). Which tool can the administrator use to simulate a scenario to see the Citrix policies that are being applied from both Citrix Studio and GPMC?

A. Group Policy Results tool from GPMC

B. Citrix Group Policy Modeling Wizard in GPMC

C. Comparison Tab in Citrix Studio

D. Citrix Group Policy Modeling Wizard in Citrix Studio

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to add machines to a Delivery group. The administrator has two Machine Catalogs containing unallocated machines. At the screen to choose machines from Machine Catalogs, the administrator sees only one Machine Catalog available.

What is a possible cause of this issue?

A. Machines in the catalog are unregistered.

B. Machines are provisioned with a different provisioning method.

C. Machines in the catalog are powered off.

D. Machines in the catalog are in maintenance mode.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is planning to update a Machine Catalog for the first time. The Machine Catalog was created with Machine Creation Services (MCS). What happens to the identity disk after the update?

A. It is deleted and recreated

B. It stays the same size

C. It doubles in size

D. It is formatted and re-initialized

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

When users log on to Citrix Receiver they are NOT able to see their line-of-business application by default and are frequently calling helpdesk to locate the application. Which phrase can a Citrix Administrator add to the application properties, so that it is added to Favorites and users CANNOT remove the application from Favorites?

A. “KEYWORDS: Mandatory”

B. “KEYWORDS: Prefer”

C. “KEYWORDS: Featured”

D. “KEYWORDS: Auto”

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which FlexCast delivery model can a Citrix Administrator use to enhance an existing physical desktop deployment?

A. Published applications

B. Hosted shared desktop

C. VM hosted applications

D. Remote PC access

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which tool can a Citrix Administrator use to investigate an issue when the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) registers with the Delivery Controller?

A. Process Monitor

B. HDX Monitor

C. XDPing

D. Process Explorer

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Scenario: The Helpdesk team is troubleshooting a printing issue. Users connect to print servers located in two different datacenters. The print servers host identical drivers and queues. Upon investigation, a Citrix Administrator finds that users

can only print to one of the print servers successfully.

The network team informed the administrator that only Citrix-related traffic is allowed between the two Sites.

How can the administrator fix this issue?

A. Create a Citrix policy to auto-create printers.

B. Install Universal drivers to all print servers.

C. Create a print policy that limits the bandwidth consumption used by printing.

D. Create a printing policy that disables direct connections to print server.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to configure a Technician User Group, which has the following requirements:

Applications are NOT compatible for multiple users

Users do NOT need the ability to install applications

Users will engage in resource-intensive work

Which FlexCast delivery model can the administrator use?

A. Hosted VDI (Static/Persistent)

B. VM-Hosted Applications

C. Published Applications

D. Hosted VDI (Random/Non-Persistent)

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator created a Machine Catalog using Machine Creation Services. The Desktop Experience was set to \’Random\’. Where will the unique information for the virtual machines be stored?

A. In the identity disk of each virtual machine

B. In the differencing disk of each virtual machine

C. Only in the Site database

D. In the PERSONALITY.INI at the root directory of each virtual machine

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

What should a Citrix Administrator keep in mind when using a Windows-based identical License Server for high availability?

A. Both License Servers will be load-balanced by NetScaler.

B. The computer account password can be changed.

C. Both License Servers need to issue licenses at the same time.

D. The second License Server must have a different hostname.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which feature allows users to add and remove applications from the Start Menu on the client workstation?

A. Local App Access

B. File-Type Association

C. Self-Service Mode

D. Session Reliability

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which PowerShell command can be used to display all the Citrix services installed on the Delivery Controller?

A. Get-Service -DisplayName *broker*

B. Get-Service -DisplayName *citrix*

C. Get-Service -DisplayName *controller*

D. Get-Service -DisplayName *xendesktop*

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Which three financial options can be defaulted when you enter a new supplier? (Choose three.)

A. Ship Via

B. Default Buyer

C. RFQ-Only Site

D. Bill-To Location

E. Supplier Classification

F. Payment Bank Account

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 2:

Identify the correct sequence of steps in the Procure to Pay period dose process.

A. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period.

B. Prepare for period close. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period. > Post journal entries in GL

C. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in PO. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile PO activity for the period. > Close the AP period.

D. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Post journal entries in GL > Close the PO period.

E. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Create accounting. > Post journal entries in GL. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A multinational company is setting up the sourcing rules and approved supplier list (ASL) to source inventory items across different organizations. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. You do not need to create a local ASL if you create a Global ASL

B. Inventory organizations used in the sourcing rules must be set up in the Shipping Networks.

C. You need to match the supplier between a sourcing rule and an ASL, but not the supplier site.

D. The country of origin must be entered in the ASL, or it would not be available on the purchasing document.

E. A commodity can be assigned to a supplier at both the global level and at the local level, and the local level assignment takes precedence.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 4:

An approved supplier list (ASL) is being defined in a multiorganization environment. Which two statements are valid? (Choose two.)

A. Setting up a Global ASL is mandatory.

B. If a supplier item has a local ASL setup, you cannot set it up on a Global ASL.

C. The supplier for an item-supplier association must be global, while the supplier site can be local.

D. Company X has set up Planning and would source planned orders. The approval status of the supplier can be set to New or Approved.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 5:

The buyer decides to automatically update and create sourcing rules, as part of the blanket purchase agreement approval process. However, on clicking the Approve button, the buyer does not see any option to update and create blanket

purchase sourcing rules.

Which profile option has the buyer failed to set up?

A. PO: Automatic Document Sourcing

B. MRP: Default Sourcing Assignment Set

C. PO: Allow Auto-generate Sourcing Rules

D. PO: Allow Autocreation of Oracle Sourcing Documents

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

A medium-sized multinational company based in US has two business groups (BG), BG1 (for US) and BG2 (for Europe), with position approval hierarchies H1 and H2, respectively. The company has a policy that only the Controllers and

those above them can approve capital Items on requisitions and purchase orders. However, the Purchase Manager (who reports to the Controller) must also be able to authorize capital purchases.

The account range for capital items is: 2000-2599.

The relevant approval limits are:

1) Purchase Manager in both BGs: $100,000

2) Controller in BG1: $500,000

3) Controller in BG2: $200,000

Which two options represent a valid and efficient approval process? (Choose two.)

A. An employee in BG2 raises a requisition for $5000. This is verified by the employee\’s manager and forwarded to the group Controller in BG1 who approves it.

B. An employee in BG2 raises a capital requisition for $250,000, which is verified by the employee\’s manager and then forwarded to the group Controller in BG2 who approves it.

C. The buyer hi BG1 raises a standard purchase order for $250,000 with the charge account 2106. The Purchase Manager verifies it and forwards it to the controller in BG1 who approves it.

D. A buyer in BG2 raises a purchase order for $10,000 with charge for inventory items to be stocked in an asset subinventory. The Purchase Manager in BG2 verifies and forwards it to the Controller in BG2.

E. The shop floor supervisor in BG1 raises a requisition for a new drilling machine for $250,000. The supervisor\’s manager (Production Manager) verifies the requisition and forwards it to the Controller in BG1 for a final approval.

F. The Purchase Manager in BG2 raises a requisition for $5000 for computer equipment. The Controller in BG2 approves it and instructs the buyer to ensure a 2-year warranty on this equipment. The buyer in BG2 places the order on the supplier.

Correct Answer: CF


Question 7:

When implementing Purchasing at FGH Corp., you notice several administrative inefficiencies due to a poorly maintained supplier list. Identify three inefficiencies. (Choose three.)

A. entering suppliers twice

B. issuing specific invoices

C. generating inaccurate returns

D. generating inaccurate receipts

E. generating accurate supplier reports

F. issuing more payments than necessary

G. issuing more purchase orders than necessary

Correct Answer: AFG


Question 8:

Your customer wants to convert both RFQs and Quotations to have tracking for Small Business Audit trail. The volume for Quotations is very high and only Approved RFQs and Quotations are being converted. What would you recommend as the best conversion strategy for RFQs and Quotations?

A. Data Load both RFQs and Quotations.

B. Manually enter both RFQs and Quotations.

C. Manually enter RFQs, and Data Load Quotations.

D. Use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for both RFQs and Quotations.

E. Use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for RFQs and Data Load Quotations,

F. Manually enter RFQs, and use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for the loading of Quotations.

Correct Answer: F


Question 9:

Your company often orders Items that are sourced from multiple suppliers. At any given time, the supplier varies depending on the supplier\’s current production capability and price offering. The price varies throughout the year. For a particular

item, there is no single supplier that receives the majority of the orders.

What is the best way to set up this item?

A. Create blanket purchase agreements, a sourcing rule identifying all the possible suppliers, and approved supplier list entries.

B. Create contract purchase agreements, a sourcing rule identifying all the possible suppliers, and approved supplier list entries.

C. Do not create blanket or contract purchase agreements or sourcing rules. Manually AutoCreate requisitions onto standard purchase orders.

D. Create a blanket purchase agreement for only one supplier, a sourcing rule for just that supplier, and an approved supplier list entry for that supplier.

E. Create a contract purchase agreement for only one supplier, a sourcing rule for just that supplier, and an approved supplier list entry for that supplier.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

The following transactions occurred at BUY Co., where you implemented the ERS functionality in Oracle Purchasing:

Purchase order unit price: $10

Receipt #1001: 150 units (gross of 50 units returned at the time of receiving)

Receipt #1002: 250 units

The Pay on Receipt process is run nightly, with the summary level set to Pay Site at the supplier site. The aging period is 0.

What would the Pay on Receipt process generate for these transactions?

A. a $3500 invoice

B. a $4000 invoice

C. a $50 invoice and a $2500 invoice

D. a $1500 invoice, a $2500 invoice, and a $50 debit memo

E. a $1000 invoice, a $2500 invoice, and a $50 debit memo

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You have been asked by the HR Manager to define Oracle Alert to show all employees terminated in the past six months. Identify three pieces of information that is required to define this Alert. (Choose three.)

A. actions that you want Alert to perform

B. frequency with which you want to run this Alert

C. a SQL statement that retrieves terminated employees

D. name of the concurrent program to be run after Alert runs

E. database table name, which stores employee Information to specify In the Event Details section

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 12:

Select three true statements regarding the Workflow Document Creation prerequisite (PO Create Documents workflow). (Choose three.)

A. Catalog quote must not be expired, but may be inactive.

B. Supplier and supplier site are required on the requisition related to a contract purchase order.

C. If a system Item is not associated with the requisition line, a supplier item number is required.

D. Sourcing rules are required If the requisition originates in Oracle Purchasing or {Procurement.

E. No source document is required for the PO Create Documents workflow to create a release or purchase order.

F. The only time an approved supplier list is required is if your source document is a blanket purchase agreement and you are using a system item.

Correct Answer: BCF


Question 13:

Consider the following setups:

1) Purchasing System Option enforce Full Lot Quantity * Mandatory

2) Rounding Factor at the item level = 75%

3) Unit of Issue at the item level = Dozen

Select two statements that are true. (Choose two.)

A. If the user enters 6 each on an internal requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 0,

B. If the user enters 6 each on a purchase requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 0,

C. If the user enters 11 each on an internal requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 12 each,

D. If the user enters 11 each on a purchase requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 12 each,

E. An advisory message suggesting rounding and a suggested rounding quantity are displayed, but you can override this.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 14:

Requisition Import groups all requisitions with the same group code under the same requisition header. If no group code is specified, requisition Import groups requisitions according to five types of groups that can be optionally passed to the Requisition Import process.

Identify them. (Choose five.)

A. Group by Item.

B. Group by price.

C. Group by buyer.

D. Group by UOM.

E. Group by location.

F. Group by supplier.

G. Group by description.

H. Group all requisition lines under one requisition header

Correct Answer: ACEFH


Question 15:

While defining Approval Groups, which three objects can you define authorization rules for? (Choose three.)

A. Buyer

B. Location

C. Commodity

D. Item Category

E. Account Range

F. Document Amount

Correct Answer: BDE


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Question 1:

What are the correct steps for connecting a virtual machine to a logical switch?

A. Select the logical switch, select the virtual machine, click the Add Virtual Machine icon, select the vNIC to connect.

B. Select the logical switch, click the Add Virtual Machine Icon, select the VM, select the vNIC to connect.

C. Select the vNIC, click the Add Virtual Machine Icon, select the logical switch.

D. Click the Add Virtual Machine icon, select the logical switch, vNIC to connect.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which three changes to a distributed switch configuration could trigger a rollback? (Choose three.)

A. Blocking all ports in the distributed port group containing the management VMkernel network adapter.

B. Configure the virtual machine system traffic to enable bandwidth allocation using Network I/O Control.

C. Adding a new host with a previous vDS configuration.

D. Changing the MTU.

E. Changing the VLAN settings in the distributed port group of the management VMkernel adapter.

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 3:

When designing a multi-site NSX deployment, which capability requires Enhanced Linked Mode to function?

A. Creating Universal Transport Zones

B. Creating Universal Logical Switches

C. Cross-vCenter vMotion

D. Registering a Secondary NSX Manager

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

An administrator has implemented VMware NSX on a leaf-spine underlay. They have deployed the following in the data center:

*

Two racks for a management cluster that is not prepared for VMware NSX

*

Six racks for compute clusters

*

Two racks for an Edge cluster which holds a DLR control VM for bridging, and North/South Edge Service Gateways Which three of the following are true regarding the physical and logical networking of the environment? (Choose three.)

A.

At least one VXLAN segment spans across all the racks.

B.

VXLAN segments span the compute and Edge racks.

C.

At least one VLAN spans the compute racks.

D.

At least one VLAN spans across the two management racks.

E.

At least 2 VLANs span across the two Edge racks.

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 5:

What needs to be deployed before configuring the identity Firewall?

A. Network Introspection

B. Data Security

C. LDAP Integration

D. Guest Introspection

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

What is one of the benefits of using logical switches in an NSX environment?

A. Quality of Service parameters are automatically configured in a logical switch.

B. The physical infrastructure is responsible for maintaining the logical switch broadcast tables.

C. The physical infrastructure is not constrained by MAC/FIB table limits.

D. IP subnet definitions can be migrated into logical switches using the NSX Manager.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

A customer has Cisco Nexus 1000V switches in their environment and is looking at deploying NSX.

Which statement is correct?

A. The environment must be migrated from the Nexus 1000V to vSphere Distributed Switches.

B. The environment must be configured for VXLAN over the Nexus 1000V.

C. The environment can use the Nexus 1000V switches for the NSX deployment.

D. The environment must be migrated from the Nexus 1000V to vSphere Standard Switches.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which three services could be provided by an NSX Edge Service Gateway? (Choose three.)

A. NTP

B. AAA

C. SSL VPN-Plus

D. L2 VPN

E. Firewall

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 9:

What are two requirements of the network infrastructure to the access layer? (Choose two)

A. IPv4 connectivity among ESXi hosts provided by a spine-leaf network design.

B. IPv4 connectivity among ESXi hosts.

C. Increased MTU if the virtual machines are using the default MTU size of 1500.

D. A Redundant, Layer 3, Top-of-Rack network design to provide high availability to ESX hosts.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 10:

When configuring BGP routing in NSX, what is the purpose of the Graceful Restart check box?

A. Automatically restart the peer router when BGP session is established.

B. Allow packet forwarding to be uninterrupted during restart of BGP services.

C. Automatically restart the local router when BGP session is established.

D. Allow packet forwarding to be paused during restart of BGP services.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which two statements are true regarding L2 Bridges and Distributed Logical Routers? (Choose two.)

A. There can only be one instance of an L2 Bridge on a DLR.

B. Each L2 bridge instance can map to multiple VLANs.

C. Each L2 bridge instance can only map to a single VLAN.

D. There can be multiple instances of an L2 bridge on a DLR.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 12:

An application requires load balancing with minimal impact to network performance. An NSX administrator is deploying a load balancer to meet the stated requirements. Which load balancing engine should be deployed?

A. Layer 5

B. Layer 6

C. Layer 7

D. Layer 4

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

What is the best practice workflow for a NSX installation to support logical switching?

A. Deploy NSX Manager, Configure Logical Switches, Register with vCenter, Deploy Controllers. Prepare hosts

B. Deploy NSX Manager, Deploy Controllers, Configure Logical Switches, Register with vCenter, Prepare hosts

C. Deploy NSX Manager, Register with vCenter, Prepare hosts, Deploy Controllers, Configure Logical Switches

D. Deploy NSX Manager, Register with vCenter, Deploy Controllers, Prepare hosts, Configure Logical Switches

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

What is the most restrictive NSX role that can be used to create and publish security policies and install virtual appliances?

A. Security Administrator

B. NSX Administrator

C. Auditor

D. Enterprise Administrator

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which two NSX Data Security roles could be assigned to view configured policies and violation reports? (Choose two.)

A. Security Administrator

B. NSX Administrator

C. Auditor

D. Enterprise Administrator

Correct Answer: AC


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Question 1:

Which statement about CDB architecture is true?

A. Oracle-supplied metadata resides only in the root container.

B. A seed PDB can sometimes be opened for particular operations.

C. Multiple PDBs with the same name can reside in the same CDB.

D. A CDB can have an infinite number of PDBs.

E. You can create common users in PDBs.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/cdbovrvw.htm#CNCPT89235


Question 2:

Which two statements about the Process Monitor (PMON) process are true?

A. PMON performs process recovery when a client process fails.

B. During instance startup, PMON takes care of instance recovery.

C. PMON performs listener registration.

D. PMON restarts background and dispatcher processes when they fail.

E. PMON resolves failures of distributed transactions.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 3:

Which statement is true about loading data by using the conventional path of SQL*Loader?

A. Redo is not generated while performing conventional path loads.

B. Only PRIMARY KEY, UNIQUE KEY, and NOT NULL constraints are checked,

C. No exclusive locks are acquired when the conventional path loads are performed.

D. Instead of performing transactions, SQL*Loader directly writes data blocks to the data files.

E. INSERT triggers are disabled before the conventional path load and re-enabled at the end of the load.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/A57673_01/DOC/server/doc/SUT73/ch8.htm#data paths (seedirect loads, integrity constraints, and triggers)


Question 4:

Which two statements about ADDM are true?

A. Real-Time ADDM uses AWR snapshots of the last 10 minutes.

B. Real-Time ADDM uses ASH recent activity from SGA data.

C. Real-Time ADDM analyzes performance in a completely different fashion than regular ADDM.

D. Regular ADDM uses AWR snapshots that are not yet purged.

Correct Answer: CD

C: Real-Time ADDM provides an innovative way to analyze problems in unresponsive or hung databases.

Using a normal and a diagnostic mode connection Real-Time ADDM runs through a set of predefined criteria to analyze the current performance and helps the DBA to resolve deadlocks, hangs, shared pool contentions and many other

exception situations that today forces the administrator to bounce their databases, causing significant loss of revenue. Real-Time ADDM is the only tool available in the market today that can log into a hung database, analyze the problem and

recommend a resolution.

Note: Real-Time ADDM is an innovative way to analyze problems in extremely slow or unresponsive databases, which would have traditionally required a database restart. Real-Time ADDM can help resolve issues such as deadlocks, hangs,

and shared pool contentions, as well as many other exception situations, without resorting to a restart of the database.

D: ADDM builds upon the data captured in AWR.


Question 5:

Which statement about the Oracle Advanced Security Data Redaction feature is true?

A. It transparently encrypts data at rest in Oracle databases.

B. It securely manages encryption keys.

C. It protects against theft or loss of disks and backups.

D. It prevents OS users from inspecting tablespace files.

E. It limits the exposure of sensitive data in applications.

F. It alters data in caches, buffers, and persistent storage.

G. It impacts operational activities such as backup and restore, upgrade and patch, and replication.

Correct Answer: E

Redacting Sensitive Data for Display Data Redaction provides selective, on-the-fly redaction of sensitive data in query results prior to display by applications so that unauthorized users cannot view the sensitive data. It enables consistent redaction of database columns across application modules accessing the same data. Data Redaction minimizes changes to applications because it does not alter actual data in internal database buffers, caches, or storage, and it preserves the original data type and formatting when transformed data is returned to the application. Data Redaction has no impact on database operational activities such as backup and restore, upgrade and patch, and high availability clusters.

Reference: Oracle Advanced Security, 12c, Oracle Data Sheet


Question 6:

Examine the table:

Table name: PRODUCTS Schema: SCOTT Tablespace: USERS Organization: Standard (Heap Organized)

This table contains 20 rows. In the data that has been entered, the PROD_ID column contains only single-digit values, PROD_NAME has a maximum of five characters, and PROD_RATE has four-digit values for all rows.

Which two statements are true regarding the modifications that can be performed to the structure of the PRODUCTS table?

A. PROD_NAME size can be increased from five to 10 characters.

B. PROD_ID can be changed from CHAR to NUMBER data type.

C. PROD_RATE size can be changed from NUMBER(4) to NUMBER(6, 2).

D. New columns can be added only if they have a NOT NULL constraint.

E. None of the existing columns can be dropped because they contain data.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 7:

Which two statements represent where Oracle Net must reside?

A. Only on the client for traditional client/server applications

B. Only on the database server for web-based applications

C. On both the web server and database server for web-based applications

D. On both the client and database server for traditional client/server applications.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

When you start up a CDB, which operations are performed automatically and in what order?

a – The instance is started.

b – Control files are opened.

c – The root container is opened (redo logs and root data files).

d – Seed pluggable database is in READ ONLY mode.

e – Other PDBs are still in MOUNTED mode.

f – Triggers may fire if they exist to open other PDBs.

A. a, b, c, d, e, f

B. b, c, a, d, e, f

C. c, b, a, d, f, e

D. a, b, c, d

E. b, c, a, d

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Your customer has two CDBs: one for Production and one for development. You are asked to create a new development PDB (salesdev) from an existing production PDB (salesprd).

Which two options would accomplish this?

A. You copy all the PDBSSEEDdata files from the production CDB into the development CDB and execute this on the development CDB; SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev ADMIN USER salesdm IDENTIFIED by password;

B. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode, and start cloning the source database: SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY; SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev FROM salesprd;

C. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode: SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY; In the development CDB, you create a databaselink “PRD” that connects to the root of the source CDB, and start cloning the source PDB: SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevFROM [email protected];

D. Connected as the salesprd local DBA, you create an XML using: SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salespdb UNPLUG INTO \’ /tmp/salesprd-xml\’ ; Copy the XML file and all salesprd-related files to the target CDB and start plugging the copy into the development CDB using: SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev USING\’ /tmp/salesprd.xml\’;

Correct Answer: AD

A: Creating a PDB Using the Seed

You can use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a PDB in a CDB using the files of the seed.

D: Plugging In an Unplugged PDB

To plug in an unplugged PDB, the following prerequisites must be met:

*

Complete the prerequisites described in “Preparing for PDBs”.

*

The XML file that describes the PDB must exist in a location that is accessible to the CDB.

The USING clause must specify the XML file.

Etc


Question 10:

Which option represents the steps to add a multiplexed copy of the current control file or to rename a control file in Oracle Database 12c?

a – Shut down the database.

b – Restart the database.

c – Copy an existing control file to a new location by using operating system commands.

d – Edit the CONTROL_FILESparameter in the database initialization parameter file to add the new control file name, or to change the existingcontrol file name.

A. b, c, d

B. a, c, d, b

C. a, d, b, c

D. c, d, b

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17636/control.htm#ADMIN11287


Question 11:

Your customer wants all email addresses from the database displayed as [hidden]@company.com.

What method of data redaction must you use?

A. full redaction

B. partial redaction

C. regular expressions

D. random redaction

E. no redaction

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which two statements are true about transactions in Oracle Database 12c?

A. Multiple transactions can use the same undo segment.

B. A transaction is assigned an undo segment when it is started.

C. Multiple transactions cannot share the same extent in an undo tablespace.

D. If all the segments in an undo tablespace are used, transactions use system undo segments to store undo data.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which three statements are true about a database instance that has mounted a database but has not opened it?

A. System administrators and users with the CREATE SESSION system privilege may connect to the instance.

B. Data files are open in read-only mode.

C. A control file is open.

D. System Global Area (SGA) is allocated and background processes are started.

E. An alert log and trace files are open.

F. Instance recovery is performed for the database.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 14:

Your customer wants to migrate their production database from Oracle Database 10gon AIX to Oracle Database 12con Solaris, and is concerned about the downtime. Which Oracle solution would you recommend?

A. Active Data Guard

B. Oracle GoldenGate

C. Oracle Real Application Clusters

D. Oracle Transportable Tablespaces

E. Oracle Cloud Platform as a Service

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You have two database servers EMP and EXP. A user of the database from the EXP server wants to extract some information from the database in the EMP server for cross-verification. Which schema object enables the user to access the information from the remote database?

A. cluster

B. database link

C. mapping table

D. materialized view

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14200/statements_5005.htm


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Question 1:

When importing, a data source output shows columns A and B. It is necessary for Column B to be joined with Column A, but the information in column B must appear first. With Column B selected, which of the following Column Actions can MOST efficiently accomplish this task?

A. Compress Columns

B. Suffix with Another Column

C. Prefix with Another Column

D. Merge with Another Column

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

The Filters and Histograms feature in Analyst\’s Notebook allows the user to do all of the following EXCEPT for the ability to:

A. use analysis attributes for analyzing data.

B. isolate data based on filters or histograms selected.

C. drill-down into the data to do more in depth analysis.

D. view the data in different ways while at the same time changing the underlying data.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Review the sample chart here:

Which is the BEST Visual Search query to find account activity on 01 January 2011 from 9:00 AM to 5:00 PM? Note: The difference in highlighting is not a factor in determining the correct answer.

A. Exhibit A

B. Exhibit B

C. Exhibit C

D. Exhibit D

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Compared to other parts of the network, which entity has the HIGHEST degree centrality?

A. Jennifer REILAND

B. Heather JACKSON

C. Abigail ROSS

D. Edward INGRAM

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Once Analyst\’s Notebook has identified possible matching entities, how are duplicates removed?

A. Manually change the identity of one entity to match the other entity

B. Select the matching entities and press Ctrl D simultaneously

C. Select each of the matching entities and click the Link button.

D. Select each of the matching entities and click the Merge button.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Examine the image here:

“Black 2010 Mercedes-Benz C63” is entered in what location?

A. Attribute

B. Description

C. Card Summary

D. Card Description

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which file format CANNOT be imported into Analyst\’s Notebook?

A. Text file (*.txt)

B. Word file (*.doc)

C. Excel Spreadsheet file (*.xls)

D. Comma-Separated Value (Comma Delimited) file (*.csv)

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

An intelligence analyst is in the process of importing financial records. Using Directed Multiplicity, the analyst should make sure the link label properties are correct so that the results will show the combined number of times transactions took place between accounts. Which of the following will produce the intended results?

A. Link Label Value

B. Sum Numeric Links

C. Number of occurrences

D. Connection Label Value

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A researcher is importing an Excel worksheet into Analyst Notebook. The researcher wants to ensure that all dates are correctly transferred to a chart. The date and time format step is as follows:

Which of the following formats should the researcher select?

A. dd MMM yy

B. dd MMM yyyy

C. dd MMMM yyyy

D. dddd MMM yyyy

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which of the following is true when using corners in an association or timeline chart layout?

A. Exhibit A

B. Exhibit B

C. Exhibit C

D. Exhibit D

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

An analyst has the following chart:

Which of the following procedures would the analyst take to bring over ONLY Joan RYAN, her direct entity connections and their interconnections to a new chart?

A. Right-click on Joan RYAN > Copy

B. Right-click on Joan RYAN > Select Connections > Right-click > Copy

C. Right-click on Joan RYAN > Select Connections > Right-click Select Ends > Right-click > Copy

D. Right-click on Joan RYAN > Select Connections > Right-click Select Ends > Right-click > Copy Selection Only

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

An intelligence analyst has printed a chart that is cut off at the edges. Which of the following is the BEST way to fix this problem?

A. Adjust the scale

B. Remove the border

C. Center Chart on Paper

D. Remove header and footer text

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Some telephone calls have been charted, as follows:

An intelligence analyst is tasked with printing out a copy of the chart for management.

To make the chart easier to read, which one layout has been used?

A. Ordered B. Theme Line

C. Proportional

D. Grouped by Time

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Find Path allows a user to:

A. use Google Earth for geospatial analysis.

B. find a specific route between two items on a chart.

C. predict a subject movements based on previous activity.predict a subject? movements based on previous activity.

D. extend the current selection of items on the chart to include entities linked to the selection.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which analysis tool will help discover entities that have been accidentally added more than once to a chart?

A. Find Text

B. Visual Search

C. Find Linked Entities

D. Find Matching Entities

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

A storage administrator is creating a host profile in Unisphere to provide host access to block storage resources using the iSCSI protocol. The host initiators were not automatically discovered and must be manually added. In addition to the SAN host IQN, what other configuration can be performed through the “Create iSCSI Initiator Wizard” window?

A. Enable and disable CHAP settings

B. Create Mutual CHAP secret

C. Create Global CHAP secret

D. Enter CHAP username and secret

Correct Answer: D

A sample from a Broadcomm BIOS is provided in the figure below, illustrating the IQN assignment for the VNX iSCSI target.

References: https://www.emc.com/collateral/hardware/technical-documentation/h8229-vnx-vmware-tb.pdf (page 34)


Question 2:

A storage administrator is configuring a storage pool on a Unity system containing Flash disks and SAS disks. What tier will the system assign to each of the disk types?

A. Flash: Extreme Performance SAS: Performance

B. Flash: Performance SAS: Capacity

C. Flash: Extreme Performance SAS: Capacity

D. Flash: Capacity SAS: Performance

Correct Answer: A

Hybrid pools can have up to 3 tiers (Extreme Performance, Performance, and Capacity).

For the Extreme Performance tier, use only SAS Flashdrives.

For the Capacity tier, use only SAS drives.


Question 3:

Which technology is used by Unity Snapshots?

A. Copy on First Write

B. Inline Deduplication

C. Redirect on Write

D. Block Compression

Correct Answer: C

The technology used for snapshots of both block and file resources in Unity is called redirect on write.


Question 4:

A system administrator is configuring asynchronous remote replication for an existing NAS server and its\’ file systems on a Unity system. What should the administrator create to ensure all data is replicated for the NAS server and the file system?

A. Replication sessions on each file system only

B. Replication sessions for each file system first and then the NAS server

C. A replication session on the NAS server and then manually create replication sessions on each file system

D. A replication session for only the NAS server

Correct Answer: D

Before File Systems or VMware NFS Datastores can be replicated, the NAS Server must be replicated.


Question 5:

Which software bundles are provided with the Unity Starter software package?

A. FAST Cache and Fast VP

B. Thin Provisioning and Quality of Service

C. Controller-Based Encryption and RecoverPoint Basic

D. FAST Cache and Local Point-in-Time Copies

Correct Answer: A

The UnityVSA offers a dynamic deployment model that allows you to start for free and grow as business needs evolve.

UnityVSA include:

FAST Cache leverages the performance of Flash media to improve workloads that are interfacing with spinning disk media.

Fully Automated Storage Tiering for Virtual Pools (FAST VP) ensures your data is distributed effectively across the various media types in a multi-tier pool.

Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15084-emc-unity-introduction-to-the-unity-platform.pdf (page 20)


Question 6:

When configuring asynchronous remote replication, how many internal Unity Snapshots are configured and utilized on the source system by a single replication session?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: B

Internal Snapshot (Replication Snapshot) are Unity Snapshots created by the system which are part of an asynchronous replication session. These Snapshots can be viewed in Unisphere, but user operations are not permitted. Each asynchronous replication session uses two internal snapshots taken on the source and destination storage resources.


Question 7:

A storage administrator is implementing FAST Cache on a Unity 500 storage array and can select from a mix of SSD drives. Which drive types can be configured to meet the administrator\’s requirements?

A. 200 GB and 400 GB

B. 400GB and 1.6 TB

C. 1.6 TB and 3.2 TB

D. 3.2 TB and 800 GB

Correct Answer: A

Unity 500 FAST Cache is only supported by 200 GB and 400 GB SSD hard drives.

Reference: http://www.emc.com/collateral/data-sheet/h14958-unity-hybrid-family-ss.pdf (page 5)


Question 8:

A storage administrator is required to test a new version of an application loaded on a secondary host. The administrator must use existing data contained on a LUN provisioned from Unity to a primary host.

Which solution will meet the requirement and provide space efficiency?

A. Create a snapshot of the LUN Configure LUN access for the secondary host Attach the snapshot to the secondary host

B. Create a snapshot of the LUN Configure snapshot access to the LUN for the secondary host Attach the snapshot to the secondary host

C. Create a Synchronous Replication session for the LUN Configure access to the replica LUN for the secondary host Attach the secondary host

D. Create an Asynchronous Replication on session for the LUN Configure access to the replica LUN for the secondary host Attach the secondary host

Correct Answer: B

Attaching a snapshot is only applicable for block snapshots, and makes the snapshot available for host IO. A host must have Snapshot access or LUN and Snapshot access configured in order to access the snapshot. When a snapshot is attached, Unisphere provides the option to create a copy of the snapshot in case the administrator wants to preserve the current snapshot view for future use.


Question 9:

On which systems is Quality of Service available?

A. Physical Unity systems only

B. UnityVSA systems only

C. Physical Unity and UnityVSA systems

D. All Flash Unity systems only

Correct Answer: C

UnitVSA features Host I/O limits, also known as Quality of service. The EMC [Physical] Unity array comes with a pack of new hardware and software features focusing on the true unification: Support for setting up Host I/O limits, also known as QOS, providing a more predictable performance for the workloads by putting limits on I/O throughputs and bandwidth DPE reduced from a 7U footprint to an innovative 2U footprint 12 GB SAS back-end for the Unity DAEs; EMC VNX/VNXe supported only 6 GB SAS backend Completely redesigned user interface based on HTML5

References: http://www.presidio.com/blog/technical-summary-emc-unification-unity


Question 10:

A system administrator has configured a system using the Initial Configuration wizard. After completing the wizard, the administrator discovers that an incorrect IP address has been assigned to the Unity system. How can the IP address be changed?

A. The IP address cannot be changed once it has been configured

B. Through the Service interface using the ifconfig command

C. In the Unisphere Settings menu

D. The IP address can only be changed using the UEMCLI

Correct Answer: D

The svc_initial_config UEMCLI command sets up initial system configuration. It configures a management IP address when the Connection Utility (CU) is not available on the network. If an address is set, this command can also change the management IPv4 and IPv6 configuration mode. It attempts to configure the system with the given friendly name and/or network parameters.

Note: The Unisphere CLI (UEMCLI) is a tool that provides us with the CLI access to perform the same actions as one would on the Unisphere web interface. References: https://www.emc.com/collateral/TechnicalDocument/docu69328.pdf (page 60)


Question 11:

Which FAST Cache operation can be performed from the Settings window?

A. Disable FAST Cache use on a specific pool

B. Pause FAST Cache use

C. Expand FAST Cache

D. Enable FAST Cache use on a specific pool

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which Unity service task is used to reinstall the root operating system while leaving the user\’s data intact?

A. Restore the Management server

B. Reimage the Storage Processor

C. Restore the Management software

D. Reinitialize the storage system

Correct Answer: B

Re-image a storage processor (SP) to safely fix problems with the system software that could not be resolved by rebooting the SP. Re-imaging analyzes the system software for errors and attempts to correct them instantly. Re-image an SP

from the Service System page.

Your configuration settings and stored files will not be changed.

References: https://community.emc.com/docs/DOC-40315


Question 13:

Which migration tool can be used to move file data a Unity storage array in both NFS and CIFS/SMB protocols?

A. EMC Select Datadobi

B. Unity Async Replication

C. rsync

D. EMCopy

Correct Answer: D

EMcopy will work to copy the data from Solaris host to export CIFS and NFS including the security configuration. References: https://it.toolbox.com/question/copy-data-from-nfs-shared-file-systems-to-nfs-and-cifs-101012


Question 14:

Which step must be completed prior to performing the initial configuration of a UnityVSA system and creating the first storage pool?

A. Create an ESXi host profile

B. License the system for NFS and SMB support

C. Add vDisks to the storage appliance

D. Install license keys for thin provisioning

Correct Answer: C

UNITY VSA STORAGE POOL CREATION

1.

Under the Storage Pool Section go to Pools. Select the to start the “Create Pool Wizard”.

2.

Name the Pool

3.

Assign a Tier to each Virtual Disk attached to the VSA. You have Extreme, Performance and Capacity.

Etc.

References: https://samshouseblog.com/2016/06/08/unity-vsa-storage-pool-creation/


Question 15:

A system administrator has added a new Unity storage array to their environment. The administrator wants to migrate block data from vVNX running in their VMware environment to a UnityVSA. In addition, the administrator needs to migrate the block data from an older CLARiiON storage array to the new Unity storage array.

Which single block migration option will work for both the virtual and hardware storage devices?

A. SAN Copy Push

B. VPLEX

C. Host-Based LVM

D. RecoverPoint

Correct Answer: A

You move Block storage from a CLARiiON CX or VNX Series storage system to an EMC Unity system.

Note: Clariion (styled CLARiiON) is a discontinued [1] SAN disk array manufactured and sold by EMC Corporation, it occupied the entry-level and mid-range of EMC\’s SAN disk array products. In 2011, EMC introduced the EMC VNX Series, designed to replace both the Clariion and Celerra products.

Incorrect Answers:

D: EMC RecoverPoint protects storage arrays LUNs and provides concurrent local and multiple remote data replication copies with continuous data protection for any PiT Recovery. It supports EMC VMAX 10K, 20K, 40K, VNX, VNXe3200, VNX-F, VPLEX, XtremIO and 3rd party arrays via VPLEX.


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Question 1:

Which of the following is not a programming model supported by the CSE microservice development framework?

A. gRPC

B. POJO

C. JAX-RS

D. SpringMVC

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which of the following are the application scenarios of Huawei Cloud APM (Application Performance Management Service)?

A. Analyze transaction status by Apdex value

B. Master application health status through topology graph

C. Track the root cause of the problem through call chain

D. Use templates to deploy apps to the cloud in one click

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 3:

When a ticketing website conducts a big promotion, due to the huge amount of instantaneous visits, the website is easily paralyzed. To cope with traffic spikes, which of the following microservice governance methods can effectively deal with this scenario and prevent system overload and crashes?

A. Current limit is correct

B. Load balancing

C. Fuse

D. Disaster recovery

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Applications have evolved towards the cloud-native (CIoudNative) model, and microservices are the de facto standard for CloudNative.

A. Error

B. Correct

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which of the following operation and maintenance capabilities can the application operation and maintenance of the microservices cloud application platform (serviceStage) provide? () [Multiple choice questions]

A. Call chain analysis

B. NOde Resource Monitoring

C. Alert

D. Log Analysis

E. Elasticity 0 0%

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 6:

Blockchain is a versatile technology that can replace databases and the Internet. Huawei Blockchain Service (BCS) is a high-performance, high-availability and high-security blockchain technology platform service for enterprises and developers. Chain traceability and other scenarios.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

In POJO mode, what information do consumers need to formulate when calling service providers? () [Multiple choice questions]

Option Subtotal Proportion

A. instanceId

B. schemaId

C. operationId

D. microserviceName

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

Huawei Cloud PaaS adheres to the company\’s proposition in the field of open source “originating from open source, higher than open source, giving back to open source”, and continuously innovating based on cloud-native technologies to help prosper the ecosystem. The following are PaaS contributions in the open source field?

A. Containers: CNCF Startup Member, Platinum Member, Kubernetes

B. The community contributes to the domestic first and the third global microservices field: self-developed microservice framework

C. ServiceComb, the industry\’s first Apache microservices top project Blockchain: Joined the Hyperledger community in 2016, Fabric and STL Maintainer, the only one in Asia

D. Kubernetes Ecology: Aiming at the industry problems of gene sequencing and edge scenarios, open source container-based one-stop gene sequencing computing framework KubeGene and Kubernetes architecture platform management framework KubeEdge

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 9:

What are the capabilities provided by Huawei CSE Microservices\’ full life cycle management () [multiple choice questions]

A. Service creation – local engineering, cloud engineering

B. CCD – Application Development Pipeline

C. Service operation and maintenance – microservice governance

D. Service monitoring – dashboard, docking APM

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 10:

UML class diagram deployment indicates the dynamic relationship between classes () [Single-choice question]

Option Subtotal Proportion

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

When using Huawei Cloud Distributed Messaging DMS service, what information do I need to obtain to complete client access after Kafka queue creation is complete? (Multiple choices)

A. Client certificate

B. AS / SK

C. Access point information

D. Consumer Information

Correct Answer: AB


Question 12:

Which of the following are middleware products in the industry? (Multiple choices)

A. Ignite B. Apache Tomcat

B. oracle RebLogic D. Kafka

C. Redis

D. IBM Message Queue

Correct Answer: BC


Question 13:

Public cloud charges, private clouds do not charge

A. Error

B. Correct

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which of the following are the functions that can be achieved after building a distributed cloud application using cloud middleware? () [Multiple choice questions]

A. Dynamic and static separation: The traffic of dynamic pages is separated from the traffic of static pages

B. Accurately predict system performance and luxury

C. System decoupling

D. Database sub-database sub-table

E. Open, compatible, and scalable

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 15:

The microservice engine provides gray-scale publishing between microservices, and supports

(Such as Header).

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A