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Question 1:

Which of the following protocols cannot be blocked or monitored by McAfee DLP \’Network Communication Protection Rules\’?

A. Secure FTP (SFTP)

B. Secure Copy (SCP)

C. Server Message Block/NetBIOS (SMB)

D. Secure Shell (SSH)

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

To meet specific requirements for managed systems in four different regions, an organization has customized several values within DLPE Agent Configuration policies. The four different Agent Configuration policies have been applied to objects in the ePO System Tree. Prior to an upgrade the four different Agent Configuration policies can be backed up through which of the following methods?

A. The DLP Policy, File, Save as feature

B. The DLP Policy, File, Export Policy to HTML feature

C. The DLP Policy, File, Synchronize Templates feature

D. The McAfee ePolicy Orchestrator Policy Catalog feature

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

When including local users in User Assignment Groups, are all local users evaluated equally?

A. No, local users are not authenticated with the domain.

B. Yes, permissions are equal for all local users.

C. No, local user accounts must be placed into a separate user assignment group from domain users.

D. Yes, local users must also be defined as domain users.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What rule prevents unauthorized executables and potential malware from running directly from Removable Storage Devices?

A. Removable Storage Protection Rule

B. Removable Storage File Access Rule

C. Removable Storage Device Rule

D. Removable Storage File Block Rule

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

When detected, which of the following must be categorized with the highest severity?

A. User makes a purchase online with personal credit cards

B. User emails a copy of a spreadsheet with credit card numbers of all customers to personal email to continue work from home

C. User copies a spreadsheet with credit card numbers of all customers to an encrypted device to continue work from home

D. User files an online form and includes their own personally identifiable information

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which of the following is an example of un-structured data that may be identified using Dictionaries?

A. Social Security numbers

B. Credit card numbers

C. List of diseases

D. Date of birth

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Applications in which of the following groups will NOT have their Disk Activity scanned for sensitive data?

A. Editor

B. Archiver

C. Installer

D. Trusted

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which of the following DLP features could be used to target suspicious activity during the first phase of an attack at the hardware layer?

A. Removable Storage device rules

B. Unmanageable device class

C. File system protection rules

D. Network communication protection rules

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

How does McAfee DLPe classify sensitive content?

A. Using DLP monitor reaction in rules

B. Using Tags and Content categories

C. Using File Extensions

D. Using Information Protection

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which of the following is NOT a DLPe incident task?

A. Mail notification task

B. Purge task

C. Set reviewer task

D. Purge client task

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

An organization\’s call center uses shared computers for 24×7 operations. Shifts are staffed by employees and contractors. As part of established business processes employees are authorized to use removable storage devices while contractors are prohibited from using these types of devices. To create flexible Removable Storage Device Rules which type of policy assignment can the DLP Endpoint Administrator configure?

A. Computer Assignment Group policy

B. Local Users policy

C. User Assignment Group

D. Privileged Users policy

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

How would internal users be prohibited from accessing local drives?

A. Enable fixed hard drive device rule

B. Enable blocking of local drives

C. Enable cloud protection rule

D. Enable monitoring and protection rule for all local drives

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

The DLP agent status dashboard monitor displays “no data found”. Which server task should be reviewed?

A. DLP incident tasks runner

B. DLP MA properties reporting task

C. DLP policy push task

D. DLP dashboard status task

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

How can incident data be exported?

A. Select specific events in DLP manager to export incident data

B. Run reports or queries to generate specific report and export incident data

C. Use database administration to export incident data

D. Run incident task manager to export incident data

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which of the following proactively helps prevent data loss?

Removable Storage Devices with a file system, when connected to a computer

A. notify the user of potential data loss.

B. send an email to the user\’s manager.

C. generate an incident that is reported to the security team.

D. are blocked.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Currently, the environment is configured with two locations with identical

XenDesktop Sites. Each Site has two Delivery Controllers, two StoreFront servers, and one NetScaler high availability pair. The same applications have been

published from both Sites for all the users. Two Zones (Zone A and Zone B) are configured in each Site with one Controller in each zone. The Microsoft Exchange

server is only accessible from Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines in Zone A in each Site.

The following access requirements have been identified:

Users should have a single URL when accessing resources from different Sites.

Users should always connect to the datacenter closest to their location.

Applications added to Favorites within Citrix Receiver should be retained when accessed from different Sites.

Launched applications and desktops should always connect through a local NetScaler.

No duplication of applications published from different Sites.

Microsoft Outlook should always launch in Zone A.

The architect should recommend configuring Optimal Gateway routing on ___________across both locations to ensure that users connect through a local

NetScaler. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A. Delivery Controllers

B. StoreFront servers

C. Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) vServers

D. NetScaler appliances

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. While designing Universal Print server (UPS) for the customer, the architect is asked to ensure that the UPS design can handle 500 simultaneous print jobs per minute.

What must the architect deploy to support the load estimated by the customer?

A. Two UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy

B. Ten UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy

C. Five UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing

D. Two UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing

E. Five UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy

F. Ten UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing

Correct Answer: E


Question 3:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing an environment for a large company. The company has identified the following user groups and requirements.

Product Managers – Typically, they work from inside the company network but are able to work from home. They need to use a variety of standard productivity and

web-based SaaS applications.

Field Sales Engineers – They frequently work with mobile devices and tend to access the environment externally. They need access to sales tools and the front-

end of the customer database.

Web Developers – Internal and remote workers who use specialized hardware with a graphics card to handle resource-intensive applications.

Which FlexCast model should the architect assign to Web Developers?

A. VM Hosted Applications

B. Published Apps

C. Published Desktops

D. Hosted VDI

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment.

The architect has identified printing requirements for certain user groups and locations, as shown in the Exhibit.

Click the Exhibit button to view the requirements.

Currently, no printer settings or policies have been configured, and as such, the environment is using default settings. Universal Print Server will NOT be used in this design.

Which two settings should the architect configure to allow the Executives group to achieve the desired print behavior and to ensure their print jobs are optimally routed? (Choose two.)

A. Set Auto-create Client Printers policy to auto-create local printers only

B. Enable Auto-create PDF Universal Printer policy

C. Set Direct connections to print servers policy to Enabled

D. Set Direct connections to print servers policy to Disabled

E. Configure Session Printers policy

F. Configure Default Printers policy

G. Set Auto-create Client Printers policy to auto-create all client printers

Correct Answer: CE


Question 5:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to redesign an existing XenApp and XenDesktop environment to use Machine Creation Services (MCS). During the design discussions, the locations for the MCS-provisioned thin clone machine disks are proposed as shown in the Exhibit.

Click the Exhibit button to view the details.

Which potential concern should the architect address with the customer before proceeding with this configuration? (Choose two.)

A. It is limited to NFS shared storage.

B. It will require substantial read IOPS from the shared storage location during machine creation and updates.

C. It will require substantial write IOPS to the shared storage location as temporary data is written.

D. It will require more storage to be allocated on the VM hosts compared with other options.

E. It is limited to certain hypervisors.

Correct Answer: CE


Question 6:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment.

The table in the Exhibit lists details about the requirements of the current user groups and their Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machine workloads.

Click the Exhibit button to view the table.

The architect should scale the hardware used to host the VMs for User Group 1 to ______ cores. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A. 32

B. 24

C. 16

D. 96

E. 64

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Scenario: While assessing the User Layer, a Citrix Architect finds that most of the internal users connect using corporate-owned laptops, desktop devices, and thin clients. Many of these laptops and desktop devices are running Windows 10, while the remainder of the machines are running Windows 7 and are in the process of being migrated to Windows 10. Some users also connect using personal devices which have Receiver Desktop Lock installed.

Currently, Citrix Receiver is manually installed on any endpoint device added to the company. All these devices use Citrix Receiver version 4.8 and above. The IT team is planning to automate a process to update all the devices with the latest version of Citrix Receiver and to automate another process for automatic installation of Citrix Receiver without incurring extra costs and maintenance.

During the initial testing of the Citrix Receiver Auto-Update feature, the architect observed that the Citrix Receiver Auto-Update feature does NOT work on some of the machines.

Which two reasons could be causing this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Citrix Receiver was locally installed with administrator-level privileges.

B. The Group Policy Object for Receiver Auto-Update feature is incorrectly configured in Active Directory.

C. Citrix Receiver Auto-Update is disabled on machines where Receiver Desktop Lock is installed.

D. The Citrix Receiver Auto-Update feature needs to be configured before Receiver Desktop Lock is configured.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 8:

Scenario: After a recent security assessment, a Citrix Architect recommends blocking unnecessary peripheral types by disabling the associated HDX channels. Currently, the environment is intended to support the peripheral types listed in the Exhibit.

Click the Exhibit button to view the supported peripheral types.

Which four HDX virtual channels should the architect disable, based on the peripherals required in the environment? (Choose four.)

A. SmartCard

B. TWI

C. Print

D. ClientAudio

E. GenericUSB

F. TwainRdr

G. Multimedia

Correct Answer: ACDE


Question 9:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing an environment for a large company. The company has identified the following user groups and requirements.

Product Managers – Typically, they work from inside the company network but are able to work from home. They need to use a variety of standard productivity and

web-based SaaS applications.

Field Sales Engineers – They frequently work with mobile devices and tend to access the environment externally. They need access to sales tools and the front-

end of the customer database.

Web Developers – Internal and remote workers who use specialized hardware with a graphics card to handle resource-intensive applications.

Which FlexCast model should the architect assign to Product Managers?

A. Hosted VDI

B. Remote PC

C. VM Hosted Applications

D. Published Apps

E. Published Desktops

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to manage the disaster recovery process for a XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The environment currently consists of an active datacenter which is typically accessed by users and a disaster recovery (DR) datacenter which would be used in the event that a disaster impacts the primary datacenter. The organization has made it a priority to minimize the loss of data when failing over between datacenters and has begun planning for an event in which the environment must fail over from the primary datacenter to the DR datacenter.

What is the appropriate sequence of steps that the architect should follow after getting management approval to complete the process in case of such an event?

A. Block access to primary datacenter, complete replication, terminate/drain existing sessions, reverse direction of replication, enable access in DR datacenter

B. Block access to primary datacenter, terminate/drain existing sessions, complete replication, reverse direction of replication, enable access in DR datacenter

C. Terminate/drain existing sessions, complete replication, block access to primary datacenter, enable access in DR datacenter, reverse direction of replication

D. Complete replication, terminate/drain existing sessions, block access to primary datacenter, reverse direction of replication, enable access in DR datacenter

E. Complete replication; block access to primary datacenter, terminate/drain existing sessions, enable access in DR datacenter, reverse direction of replication

F. Terminate/drain existing sessions; block access to primary datacenter, complete replication, reverse direction of replication, enable access in DR datacenter

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenDesktop environment for a client who does NOT currently have a Citrix environment. The project scope has NOT yet been determined, and the architect is about to start the Assess phase of the project.

In which order should the architect complete the four tasks of a typical assessment when following the Citrix methodology?

A. Define the organization, Define the user groups, Define the applications, Define the project team.

B. Define the user groups, Define the applications, Define the organization, Define the project team.

C. Define the project team, Define the organization, Define the user groups, Define the applications.

D. Define the organization, Define the project team, Define the user groups, Define the applications.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to implement XenApp and XenDesktop. Based on the assessment and early stages of the design, the architect has identified the requirements as shown in the Exhibit.

Click the Exhibit button to view the requirements.

Which tier of storage should the architect consider implementing, based on the requirements in the Exhibit?

A. DAS

B. Local

C. SAN

D. NAS

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect is reviewing a XenApp and XenDesktop design for an environment with multiple Active Directory forests. Click the Exhibit button to view the design details.

Which risk should the architect highlight to the customer, based on the details listed in the Exhibit?

A. The SupportMultipleForest registry key is NOT supported.

B. The Active Directory trust method is NOT supported.

C. The Active Directory functional level is NOT supported.

D. The DNS lookup strategy is NOT supported.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a single-Site XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Through earlier design discussions, the architect has determined the environment details listed in the Exhibit.

Click the Exhibit button to view the details.

Which SQL server baseline specifications will provide acceptable performance and stability while avoiding unnecessary over-provisioning of resources?

A. 4 CPU cores, 8 GB of RAM, 10 GB database storage

B. 2 CPU cores, 4 GB of RAM, 10 GB database storage

C. 2 CPU cores, 4 GB of RAM, 100 GB database storage

D. 8 CPU cores, 16 GB of RAM, 10 GB database storage

E. 8 CPU cores, 16 GB of RAM, 100 GB database storage

F. 4 CPU cores, 8 GB of RAM, 100 GB database storage

Correct Answer: F


Question 15:

Scenario: While assessing the User Layer, a Citrix Architect finds that most of the internal users connect using corporate-owned laptops, desktop devices, and thin clients. Many of these laptops and desktop devices are running Windows 10, while the remainder of the machines are running Windows 7 and are in the process of being migrated to Windows 10. Some users also connect using personal devices.

Currently, Citrix Receiver is manually installed on any endpoint device added to the company. All these devices use Citrix Receiver version 4.8 and above. Some of the internal users with Windows laptops are experiencing issues in which devices such as a keyboard, mouse, a monitor connected to a docking station or a USB hub are NOT usable in an HDX session.

Which action should the architect recommend to provide a uniform user experience for all users?

A. Recreate user accounts in Active Directory

B. Upgrade all clients to the latest version of Citrix Receiver

C. Upgrade drivers of peripheral devices

D. Recreate user profiles

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

A complete database backup to media is taken for your database every day. Which three actions would you take to improve backup performance? (Choose three.)

A. Set the backup_tape_io_slaves parameter to true.

B. Set the dbwr_io_slaves parameter to a nonzero value if synchronous I/O is in use.

C. Configure large pool if not already done.

D. Remove the rate parameter, if specified, in the allocate channel command.

E. Always use RMAN compression for tape backups rather than the compression provided by media manager.

F. Always use synchronous I/O for the database.

Correct Answer: BCD

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/backup.102/b14191/rcmtunin.htm


Question 2:

For which three pieces of information can you use the RMAN list command? (Choose three.)

A. stored scripts in the recovery catalog

B. available archived redo log files

C. backup sets and image copies that are obsolete

D. backups of tablespaces

E. backups that are marked obsolete according to the current retention policy

Correct Answer: ABD

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/backup.102/b14192/bkup007.htm http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmreprt.htm#BRADV89585 The primary purpose of the LIST command is to list backup and copies. For example, you can list: Backups and proxy copies of a database, tablespace, datafile, archived redo log, or control file Backups that have expired Backups restricted by time, path name, device type, tag, or recoverability Archived redo log files and disk copies


Question 3:

You notice performance degradation in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know what caused this performance difference.

Which method or feature should you use?

A. Database Replay

B. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) Compare Period report

C. Active Session History (ASH) report

D. SQL Performance Analyzer

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E24628_01/server.121/e17635/tdppt_degrade.htm


Question 4:

Which three statements are true about a job chain? (Choose three.)

A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.

B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.

C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.

D. It cannot have more than one dependency.

E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.

Correct Answer: ABE

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/scheduse009.htm#ADMIN12459


Question 5:

Examine the command:

SQL> RECOVER DATABASE USING BACKUP CONTROLFILE UNTIL CANCEL;

In which two scenarios is this command required? (Choose two.)

A. The current online redo log file is missing.

B. A data file belonging to a noncritical tablespace is missing.

C. All the control files are missing.

D. The control file backup is older than the database backup.

E. All the data files are missing.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: http://searchoracle.techtarget.com/answer/Recover-database-using-backup-controlfile-until-cancel


Question 6:

Which two are prerequisites for setting up Flashback Data Archive? (Choose two.)

A. Fast Recovery Area should be defined.

B. Undo retention guarantee should be enabled.

C. Supplemental logging should be enabled.

D. Automatic Undo Management should be enabled.

E. All users using Flashback Data Archive should have unlimited quota on the Flashback Data Archive tablespace.

F. The tablespace in which the Flashback Data Archive is created should have Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.

Correct Answer: DF

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/focus-areas/storage/total-recall-whitepaper-171749.pdf (page 8)


Question 7:

Your Oracle 12c multitenant container database (CDB) contains multiple pluggable databases (PDBs). In the PDB HR_PDB, the common user C##ADMIN and the local user B_ADMIN have only the CONNECT privilege.

You create a common role C##ROLE1 with the CREATE ANY TABLE and SELECT ANY TABLE privileges.

You then execute the commands:

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. C##ADMIN can create and select any table, and grant the C##ROLE1 role to users only in the root container.

B. B_ADMIN can create and select any table in both the root container and HR_PDB.

C. C##ADMIN can create and select any table in the root container and all the PDBs.

D. B_ADMIN can create and select any table only in HR_PDB.

E. The GRANT c##role1 TO b_admin command returns an error because CONTAINER should be set to ALL.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 8:

Examine the commands executed in the root container of your multitenant container database (CDB) that has multiple pluggable databases (PDBs):

SQL> CREATE USER c##a_admin IDENTIFIED BY orcl123;

SQL> CREATE ROLE c##role1 CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL> GRANT CREATE VIEW TO C##roleI CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL> GRANT c##role1 TO c##a_admin CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL> REVOKE c##role1 FROM c##a_admin;

What is the result of the revoke command?

A. It executes successfully and the c##role1 role is revoked from the c##a_admin user only in the root container.

B. It fails and reports an error because the container=all clause is not used.

C. It executes successfully and the c##rocl1 role is revoked from the c##a_admin user in the root database and all the PDBs.

D. It fails and reports an error because the container=current clause is not used.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

In your database, the tbs percent used parameter is set to 60 and the tbs percent free parameter is set to 20.

Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement? (Choose two.)

A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used

B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only after the segments are moved

C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds T3S percent used

D. Taking the target tablespace offline after the segments are moved

E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used

Correct Answer: BC


Question 10:

You want to consolidate backup information and centrally manage backup and recovery scripts for multiple databases running in your organization.

Which two backup solutions can be used? (Choose two.)

A. RMAN recovery catalog

B. RMAN Media Management Library

C. Enterprise Manager Cloud Control

D. Enterprise Manager Database Express

E. Oracle Secure Backup

Correct Answer: AC


Question 11:

You create a table with the period for clause to enable the use of the Temporal Validity feature of Oracle Database 12c.

Examine the table definition:

create table employees (empno number, salary number, deptid number, name varchar2(100), period for employee_time);

Which three statements are true concerning the use of the Valid Time Temporal feature for the EMPLOYEES table? (Choose three.)

A. The valid time columns employee_time_start and employee_time_end are automatically created.

B. The same statement may filter on both transaction time and valid temporal time by using the AS OF TIMESTAMP and PERIOD FOR clauses.

C. The valid time columns are not populated by the Oracle Server automatically.

D. The valid time columns are visible by default when the table is described.

E. Setting the session valid time using DBMS_FLASHBACK_ARCHIVE.ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME sets the visibility for data manipulation language (DML), data definition language (DDL), and queries performed by the session.

Correct Answer: ABC

A: To implement Temporal Validity(TV), 12c offers the option to have two date columns in that table which is having TV enabled using the new clause Period For in the Create Table for the newly created tables or in the Alter Table for the existing ones. The columns that are used can be defined while creating the table itself and will be used in the Period For clause or you can skip having them in the table\’s definition in the case of which, the Period For clause would be creating them internally.


Question 12:

Which two statements are true when row-archival management is enabled? (Choose two.)

A. Visibility of the ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is controlled by the row archival visibility session parameter.

B. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated manually or by a program that can reference activity tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.

C. The row archival visibility session parameter defaults to all rows.

D. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is visible if it is referenced in the select list of a query.

E. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated automatically by the database based on activity tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 13:

You want to capture column group usage and gather extended statistics for better cardinality estimates for the customers table in the SH schema.

Examine the following steps:

1.

Issue the SELECTDBMS_STATS. CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS (`SH\’, \’CUSTOMERS\’) from dual statement.

2.

Execute the dbms_stats.seed_col_usage (null, `SH\’, 500) procedure.

3.

Execute the required queries on the customers table.

4.

Issue the select dbms_stats.reportwcol_usage (`SH\’, \’customers\’) from dual statement.

Identify the correct sequence of steps.

A. 3, 2, 1, 4

B. 2, 3, 4, 1

C. 4, 1, 3, 2

D. 3, 2, 4, 1

Correct Answer: B

Step 1 (2). Seed column usage Oracle must observe a representative workload, in order to determine the appropriate column groups. Using the new procedure DBMS_STATS.SEED_COL_USAGE, you tell Oracle how long it should observe the workload. Step 2: (3) You don\’t need to execute all of the queries in your work during this window. You can simply run explain plan for some of your longer running queries to ensure column group information is recorded for these queries. Step 3. (1) Create the column groups At this point you can get Oracle to automatically create the column groups for each of the tables based on the usage information captured during the monitoring window. You simply have to call the DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS function for each table.This function requires just two arguments, the schema name and the table name. From then on, statistics will be maintained for each column group whenever statistics are gathered on the table. Note:

*

DBMS_STATS.REPORT_COL_USAGE reports column usage information and records all the SQL operations the database has processed for a given object.

*

The Oracle SQL optimizer has always been ignorant of the implied relationships between data columns within the same table. While the optimizer has traditionally analyzed the distribution of values within a column, he does not collect value-

based relationships between columns.

*

Creating extended statistics

Here are the steps to create extended statistics for related table columns withdbms_stats.created_extended_stats:

1 – The first step is to create column histograms for the related columns.

2 ?Next, we run dbms_stats.create_extended_stats to relate the columns together.

Unlike a traditional procedure that is invoked via an execute (“exec”) statement, Oracle extended statistics are created via a select statement.


Question 14:

Examine the initialization parameter that is set in the PFILE:

DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST =\’/u01/app/oracle/oradata/\’

You execute the following command to create CDB1 container database (CDB):

SQL>CREATE DATABASE CDB1 DEFAULT TABLESPACE users DEFAULT TEMPORARY TABLESPACE temp UNDO TABLESPACE Undotbsl ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SEED SYSTEM DATAFILES SIZE 125M AUTOEXTEND ON NEXT 10M MAXSIZE UNLIMITED SYSAUX DATAFILES SIZE 100M;

Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. It creates a multitenant container database with a root and a seed pluggable database (PDB) that are opened in read-write and read-only modes, respectively.

B. The files created for both the root and seed databases use Oracle Managed Files (OMF).

C. It creates a multitenant container database with the root and seed databases opened and one PDB mounted.

D. It sets the users tablespace as the default for both the root and seed databases.

E. undotbs1 is used as the undo tablespace for both the root and seed databases.

F. It creates a multitenant container database with the root database opened and the seed database mounted.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 15:

Examine the RMAN command:

RMAN> SET ENCRYPTION IDENTIFIED BY ON FOR ALL TABLESPACES; RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG;

Which type of encryption is used for the backup performed by using this command?

A. password-mode encryption B. dual-mode encryption

C. transparent encryption

D. default encryption

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmbckad.htm#CEGEJABH (to make password 璭ncrypted backups)


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Question 1:

Which three statements are true about ABC analysis? (Choose three.)

A. the ABC class is an Item attribute.

B. There can be only three classes A, B, and C.

C. an ABC class must be assigned to at least one ABC group.

D. ABC classes can be used to group Items for planning purposes.

E. ABC classes can be used to identify the value groupings to which your Items belong.

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 2:

You are moving items from locator A to locator B within the same Inventory organization. Which two types of inventory transactions are required? (Choose two.)

A. Move Order

B. Locator transfer

C. Subinventory transfer

D. WIP component Issue

E. Miscellaneous Receipt

F. WIP assembly completion

G. Interorganization transfer direct

Correct Answer: AC


Question 3:

XYZ Is a Chemical manufacturing company. On a daily basis, it produces 100 kilos of Item A from a single production batch. 100 kilos of item A manufactured from a single batch has a single expiration date. However, the purity of item A varies as follows:

Category 1: 95% Category 2: 85% Category 3: 50%

From an implementation perspective, which setup or process would meet this requirement?

A. Enable lot control. Map three categories asco products.

B. Enable lot control for Item A. Create three lots to represent the categories.

C. Enable lot control for item A. Create three child lots and link them with the parent lot.

D. Enable lot and grade control for item A. Have three categories mapped with grades.

E. Enable lot and serial control for item A. Create one lot and three categories that are mapped with serial numbers.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which three statements are true about ABC Analysis and cycle count Classes? (Choose three.)

A. The hit/miss% for the Class overrides the hit/miss% of the cycle count header.

B. The hit/miss% for the cycle count header overrides the hit/miss% of the Class.

C. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for a sub inventory that is defined as a non-quantity-tracked sub inventory.

D. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for nonasset (expense) subinventories for which quantities are tracked.

E. In ABC Analysis, a quantity variance must always be submitted for approval, regardless of the tolerance levels

F. Positive and negative tolerances can be entered for each class, which will override the tolerance at the cycle count header level

Correct Answer: ADF


Question 5:

Your client has inventory organizations that belong to different operating units. All Items are manufactured in one operating unit and shipped to distribution warehouses that belong to other operating units. On an exception basis, transfers may

be arranged between distribution warehouses in different operating units.

All transfers between operating units are at the shipping organization\’s standard cost plus a transfer charge percentage.

Identify three inventory setup steps that are required for allowing the receiving inventory organization to correctly process receipts from inventory organizations belonging to another operating unit. (Choose three.)

A. Define an Intercompany Price List.

B. Define the correct Unit of Measure conversions for Dual UOM.

C. Define Intercompany Relations for each pair of operating units.

D. Define a separate Item Master Organization for each operating unit.

E. Define Receiving Options for each inventory organization in each operating unit.

F. Define Shipping Networks for each pair of shipping and receiving inventory organizations.

G. Ensure that the Receiving Options are uniform for ail inventory organizations in each operating unit.

Correct Answer: CEF


Question 6:

What is the correct sequence when defining units of measure (UOM)?

A. UOM Class, UOM, UOM Conversions

B. UOM Class, UOM Conversions, UOM

C. UOM Conversions, UOM Class, UOM

D. UOM Conversions, UOM, UOM Class

E. UOM, UOM Class, UOM Conversions

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which three statements are true about the item master? (Choose three.)

A. It is possible to copy items across item master organizations.

B. The item master organization is the centralized repository for ail items in different organizations.

C. It is possible to associate items in one item master organization with another item master organization.

D. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates are not allowed at the item or organization level.

E. There is no functional or technical difference between the item master organization and other organizations while transacting on an item.

F. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates can still be made at the item or organization level but these updates would not propagate back up to the item master level.

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 8:

The warehouse has received new stock from an internal distribution warehouse.

Which two receiving transactions can be used to put stock into the warehouse\’s inventory using the Intransit Inventory? (Choose two.)

A. Direct Receipt

B. Standard Receipt and Delivery

C. Inter organization Direct Receipt

D. Inter organization Receipt and Delivery

E. Inter organization Miscellaneous Receipt

Correct Answer: CD


Question 9:

An Item has its lot Control attribute set to Full Control.

The Active material status does not have any transaction types related to lot control enabled for material status control, this status is assigned to all lot numbers associated with the item.

The subinventory where the Item\’s lot numbers are all located also has the Active material status.

How will the application respond when a user tries to submit a subinventory transfer transaction?

A. The transaction will be accepted.

B. An error message will be generated.

C. The transaction will be accepted, but will be registered as a transfer to and from the same subinventory.

D. The transaction will be accepted, but the item cost update will have to be processed separately by the user.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which statement is true regarding inventory transactions?

A. Transaction reasons can be used in all transaction forms.

B. Work in Process would not affect inventory transactions.

C. Inventory adjustments are not part of inventory transactions.

D. You can designate, by transaction type, which transaction reasons are available.

E. You must create at least one user-defined transaction reason for each inventory organization.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

What is the impact of setting the profile option INV: Override Neg for Backflush = Yes?

A. It would not allow inventory to be driven negative.

B. Back flush transactions would drive inventory negative.

C. Back flush transactions would not drive inventory negative.

D. Back flush and inventory transactions would drive inventory negative.

E. Back flush and inventory transactions would not drive inventory negative.

F. It would permit the driving of on-hand inventory negative for miscellaneous issue transactions.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

You and your client determined that forecasting methods included with inventory will be sufficient to meet the client\’s needs.

You and the customer have decided to use Focus Forecasting to begin with and move to Exponential Smoothing after one year.

Along the way, your customer noticed some definite trends in demand and has requested your help to re-evaluate the forecasting method.

What do you recommend as a forecasting method? What additional information is needed, if any?

A. Focus Forecasting

B. Exponential Smoothing

C. Exponential Smoothing with Trend Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Beta Coefficients

D. Exponential Smoothing with Season Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Beta Coefficients

E. Exponential Smoothing with Season Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Gamma Coefficients

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

ABC Inc. is a semiconductor manufacturing organization. They have all possible inventory controls items.

Which controls are validated on subinventory transfer transactions?

1.

Lot control

2.

Locator control

3.

Serial Number control

4.

Revision Quantity control

5.

Subinventory and locator restrictions for specific items

A. 1

B. 1, 3, and 5

C. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1 through 5

E. 1, 2, 3, and 5

F. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Correct Answer: E


Question 14:

Vision Corporation is a semiconductor discrete manufacturing organization; it has its own manufacturing and distribution centers located globally.

It has this operating units:

US – USA operating unit CAN – Canadian operating unit UK – UK operating unit MX – Mexican operating unit IND- India operating unit SPA -Spain operating unit FRA – France operating unit NL – Netherlands operating Unit GER -Germany operating unit

These are the inventory organizations that exist in each operating unit: Inventory Org – Operating unit

VC (Master Org)-US US1 (Child Org)- US US2 (Child Org)-us CA1 (Child Org)-CAN MXl (Child Org)-MX INI (Child Org)-IND SP1 (Child Org)-SPA FR1 (Child Org)-FRA NLl (Child Org)- NL GEl (Child Org)-GER

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Master Organization VC cannot be shared across operating units.

B. Items cannot be assigned to inventory organizations across operating units.

C. All inventory organizations do not need to be in the same operating unit to assign items.

D. You can define an item in INI inventory organization and assign it to GEl inventory organization

E. Items defined in VC organization can be assigned to US1, US2, NLl, and MXl inventory organizations.

Correct Answer: CE


Question 15:

Which two statements apply to a Physical Inventory Tag as defined by Inventory? (Choose two.)

A. Physical Inventory Tags cannot be bar coded.

B. It can contain a count for a group of a given Item.

C. It is produced and printed by the Generate Physical Inventory Tags function.

D. It is unique for every stock locator/item/lot number/serial number combination.

E. It is used to indicate to the warehouse staff that a count has been recorded for that location, so that a duplicate count is not performed.

Correct Answer: BD


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Question 1:

A cloud user is assigned the Service Administrator role. Which cloud actions can this user perform?

A. Perform all tasks in the My Services application, including user and role management tasks.

B. View, create, update, and delete Oracle Compute Cloud Service resources.

C. View only the Oracle Compute Cloud resources.

D. Work with one or more Oracle Cloud services only and use the My Services application to manage his or her own password and security challenge questions.

E. Perform cloud backups of a specific instance.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/computecs_common/OCSUG/GUID-F89D66BD-85F54325-8A1F-F8EEE53A7CF1.htm#OCSUG113


Question 2:

You notice that a database node has hung, so you open a Service Request via My Oracle Support. What diagnostic output will you send to My Oracle Support by default?

A. pkginfo

B. oswatcher

C. AWR

D. v$sessionoutput

E. list of database users

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which statement is true about Exadata Storage Servers?

A. Exadata Storage Servers automatically delete old diagnostic and metric files.

B. Exadata requires a running database instance on all storage servers and database servers.

C. Redundancy for the user data that is stored in a database that is running on Exadata is achieved with RAID5.

D. Communication between a database and an Exadata storage flows over low latency 10 Gigabit Ethernet.

E. Exadata uses network affinity to determine which storage server data is written.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

The Exadata architecture is divided into two specific tiers: the database tier and the storage tier. What protocol do these tiers use to communicate with each other?

A. iDB – Intelligent Database Protocol

B. InfiniBand protocol

C. Ethernet protocol

D. Secure Shell protocol

E. Fibre Channel protocol

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E50790_01/doc/doc.121/e50471/concepts.htm#SAGUG20333


Question 5:

In which three ways can customers access the ILOM interface to manage the Exadata database and storage server hardware components? (Choose three.)

A. ILOM CLI interface through the management network

B. ILOM Web interface through the management network

C. remote KVM session to the ILOM

D. from the database server operating system tool “ilomcli”

E. from the storage server operating system tool “ilomcli”

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 6:

Your customer is implementing a storage consolidation strategy on their existing Exadata.

Which step represents the Oracle recommended action that the customer should take in their approach?

A. Do not use IORM because it will interfere with the shared database functionality on Exadata.

B. Use ASM to create separate diskgroups for each database instance that is running on Exadata.

C. Use IORM to distribute disk bandwidth among the databases.

D. Set up Oracle Grid Infrastructure to use multiple clusters per hardware pool.

E. Set up a resource consumer group within each database instance and manage it individually.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/topics/cloud/whatsnew/mixedworkloadmgmtexadata300345.pdf page 42


Question 7:

How does Advanced Compression differ from Hybrid Columnar Compression?

A. Advanced Compression is free to use on Exadata Database Machine, whereas Hybrid Columnar Compression must be purchased.

B. They are the same; Advanced Compression is called Hybrid Columnar Compression on Exadata Database Machine.

C. Hybrid Columnar Compression is good for tables with active updates and deletes, and provides deeper compression ratios.

D. Advanced Compression is good for tables with active updates and deletes, whereas Hybrid Columnar Compression is best applied to tables or partitions where data is fairly static.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

The Exadata compute node, exadbs04, has been having issues for some time. The server had to be repaired and you just received a new server. Your LVM snapshot was corrupt and now the compute node must be re-imaged with an Oracle Support installation image.

Which three tasks must be performed in order to re-image the compute node? (Choose three.)

A. Create a CELLBOOT USB Flash Drive by using an external USB drive.

B. Mount the LVM backup image across the network and recover the system.

C. Remove exadbs04 from the RAC cluster and all associated Oracle Homes from the central inventory.

D. Reboot the new server by using a bootable recovery image from the external USB drive.

E. Reconfigure all site-specific settings (host name, IP addresses, NTP server, and so on).

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 9:

Which statement is true about instance caging setup?

A. The initialization parameter resource_manager_planshould be set.

B. For a system with 16 threads, the sum of cpu_count for all databases should not be higher than 32 to prevent oversubscribing.

C. Database instances need to be restarted to make changes to cpu_counteffective.

D. The CPU Resource Manager and IORM need to be enabled to make instance caging to work as expected.

E. Instance caging is the right approach to make sure that database instances are not stealin memory from one another.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/performance/instance-caging-wp-166854.pdf


Question 10:

Your government customer has purchased a full rack of Exadata. The customer has two departments that would like to share the Exadata Database Machine but the concern is that department A will be able to see data from department B.

Which architecture would you suggest to solve this deployment issue?

A. Split the configuration by using Oracle Nimbula\’s cloud software so that four database servers and seven cells can be used by department A and the rest can be used by department B.

B. Split the configuration and use ASM-Scoped Security so that four database servers and seven cells can be used by department A and the rest can be used by department B.

C. Set up instance caging to ensure that department A has access only to four database servers and seven cells and department B has access to the rest.

D. Define the split by setting up database services that are specific to department A and department B.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

There are many different ways to load data into database tables.

Which method does Oracle strongly recommend?

A. generic connectivity via ODBC or JDBC

B. database gateways to open systems and mainframes

C. Oracle GoldenGate

D. Oracle Data Pump

E. SQL*Loader import

F. data loading via external tables

Correct Answer: F


Question 12:

Which options does not benefit from storage offload processing?

A. indexes that rely on B-Tree pointers

B. column filtering

C. joins and aggregation

D. table scans

E. incremental backups with block change tracking

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.pythian.com/blog/exadata-join-offloading-in-action/


Question 13:

Your customer would like to configure monitoring capabilities alongside ASR on the stand-alone server that was set aside to run ASR Manager.

What configuration would you set up for the customer?

A. Enterprise Manager, SQL Developer Server, and ASR Manager on the stand-alone server because ASR needs SQL Developer to gain SQL access to the database server

B. ASR Manager inside the firewall to ensure that root access to Exadata Database Machine is not compromised

C. ASR Manager with SNMP traps configured to listen for specific alerts triggered by Exadata Database Machine

D. Enterprise Manager (Ops Center) and ASR Manager on the stand-alone server because ASR is not a monitoring tool

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Identify three customer options for hosting the Platinum Services Advanced Support Gateway. (Choose three.)

A. Purchase the recommended x86 64-Bit gateway hardware from Oracle.

B. Install in Oracle Virtual Machine with required hardware.

C. Install on Exadata Engineered System.

D. Provide individual x86 64-Bit gateway hardware.

E. Install on Oracle Database Appliance.

Correct Answer: ABC

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/us/assets/platinum-services-faq-1653259.pdf


Question 15:

What happens in an Exadata Database Machine when the DUPLICATE sub-clause of the INMEMORY attribute is specified?

A. The DUPLICATE sub-clause enables parallel execution NUMA support.

B. Each In-Memory Compression Unit in the IM column store will have a mirrored copy placed on another node in the RAC cluster.

C. The command allows the current instance to exceed DRAM limits and expand across memory, flash, and disk.

D. The command creates an in-memory snapshot for write_only access.

E. The In-Memory Compression Unit will have a mirrored copy placed on every other node in the RAC cluster.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/in-memory/learnmore/twp-dbim-exadata2556211.pdf (page 3)


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Question 1:

Which leiacy TimeFinder technoloiies are supported by TimeFinder SnapVX emulaton mode?

A. Mirror, Clone, VP Snap

B. Mirror, Clone, Snap

C. Mirror, VP Snap, Snap

D. Clone, VP Snap, Snap

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

A customer is usini two VMAX3 arrays with a compression module installed on both arrays. Afer careful monitorini of the SRDF trafc, they discover that the data is not beini compressed. What additonal acton needs to be performed to enable compression?

A. Enable compression at the SRDF Group level

B. Enable compression at the RA Director level

C. Enable the compression license

D. Enable compression on the eniine containini the RA Director

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A customer needs to automate SRDF disaster recovery for a Microsof cluster. Which SRDF soluton is recommended?

A. SRDF/CE

B. SRDF/DM

C. SRDF/CG

D. SRDF/AR

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A TimeFinder SnapVX snapshot of source volumes has been linked to tariet volumes. The tariet volumes are beini used for applicaton testni. What is recommended prior to restorini from the snapshot?

A. Stop accessini the source volumes

B. Stop accessini the tariet volumes

C. Stop accessini the source and tariet volumes

D. Contnue accessini the source and tariet volumes

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

A storaie administrator atempts to link a TimeFinder SnapVX snapshot to a tariet Storaie Group usini Unisphere for VMAX. Which Storaie Groups (SGs) will be available?

A. SGs not in any Maskini View

B. SGs in a Maskini View

C. SGs not manaied by the Optmiied SLO

D. SGs manaied by the Optmiied SLO

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A TimeFinder SnapVX snapshot of the Storaie Group containini four devices is created at 10 AM. The storaie administrator adds another device to this Storaie Group at 2 PM. A second snapshot of the Storaie Group is created at 3 PM. The 3 PM snapshot is used to perform a restore operaton at 4 PM. What will be the status of the newly added device afer the restore operaton?

A. Read/Write Enabled

B. Not Ready

C. Write Disabled

D. Failed

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A company is usini a VMAX3 at each of their two sites. They have allowed hosts to write data to both the R1 and R2 devices. They decide that the data on the R1 site is the actual producton data and need to start replicatni data from R1 to the R2 site aiain. Which operaton will discard the new data on the R2 and resume replicaton?

A. Establish

B. Restore

C. Resume

D. Failback

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What will be the status of the links in a query afer an SRDF suspend operaton?

A. Not Ready

B. Tariet Not Ready

C. Suspended

D. Not Available

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Two RDF iroups from two VMAX3 arrays have been added to a RDF Consistency Group. SRDF/A Mult-Session Consistency (MSC) has been enabled for the Consistency Group. The RDF daemon has been started on a sinile host that has

access to both the VMAX3 arrays.

What will happen if this host becomes unavailable?

A. Cycle switchini will stop

B. SRDF mode will chanie to Adaptve Copy Disk

C. RDF links will be suspended immediately

D. SRDF pair state will become parttoned

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

From an applicaton perspectve, what should be done prior to performini an SRDF restore operaton?

A. Stop accessini R1 and R2 devices

B. Stop accessini R1 devices; contnue accessini R2 devices

C. Contnue accessini R1 devices; stop accessini R2 devices

D. Contnue accessini R1 and R2 devices

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

From an applicaton perspectve, what should be done prior to performini an SRDF failback operaton?

A. Stop accessini R2 devices; start accessini R1 devices afer the command completes.

B. Stop accessini R2 devices; start accessini R1 devices before the command completes.

C. Contnue accessini R2 devices; start accessini R1 devices afer the command completes.

D. Contnue accessini R2 devices; start accessini R1 devices before the command completes.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

SRDF/A has been enabled between two VMAX3 arrays. What will the RDF pair state be if there is a permanent loss of all RDF links?

A. Parttoned

B. Suspended

C. Consistent

D. Split

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

What happens when SRDF/A DSE beiins to spill tracks in VMAX3?

A. Uses SRP to ofoad the data from cache

B. Uses the DSE pool associated with the SRDF iroup

C. Uses the cache partton for the excess tracks

D. Throtles the host I/O to pace with the data transfer

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which database does Unisphere for VMAX 8.0 use for Performance Analyier?

A. PostireSQL

B. MySQL

C. SQL Server

D. Oracle

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which optons can be selected in System Reiistratons for performance data collecton in Unisphere for VMAX version 8.0?

A. Real Time and Root Cause Analysis

B. Real Time and Diainostc

C. Real Time, Historical, and Diainostc

D. Real Time, Historical, and Root Cause Analysis

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

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A. Not possible in any situation.

B. Possible in all situations.

C. Possible in some situations.

D. Only a temporary solution.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

A live gaming platform uses Huawei OceanStor all-flash storage systems with the flash-dedicated FlashLink technology. Which of the following statements about the multi-core technology of FlashLink are correct?

A. vNodes are bound to CPUs to reduce the overheads for scheduling and transmission across CPUs.

B. Read/write I/Os are deployed in different groups from other types of I/Os to avoid mutual interference.

C. A request is processed by one core until its completion. Cores are lock-free to avoid frequent switchovers among the cores.

D. The intelligent multi-core technology drives linear growth of storage performance with CPUs and cores.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

A service host is connected to a storage device through Fibre Channel SAN. However, the service host cannot detect mapped LUNs after scanning. Which of the following are possible causes?

A. The Fibre Channel module on the service host is faulty.

B. No multipathing software is installed on the service host.

C. Zones are incorrectly configured.

D. The storage network is blocked by the firewall.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which of the following statements about global deduplication is false?

A. Deduplicated copy in different storage policies uses the same DDB.

B. Deduplicated copy in different storage policies uses the same disk library and deduplication attributes.

C. Deduplicated copy in different storage policies uses the same deduplication pools as the backup target.

D. Different storage policies must adopt the same backup data retention period.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

An enterprise has deployed multiple applications, such as desktop cloud, database, video on demand (VoD), and backup. These applications occupy a large amount of storage resources. The enterprise plans to use the deduplication and compression features. Which of the following configurations are recommended?

A. Deduplication and compression are not recommended for VOD scenarios because video files have been compressed by application software and re-compression will be inefficient.

B. Deduplication is recommended for desktop cloud scenarios because there is a large amount of duplicate data among multiple virtual images.

C. Compression is recommended for database-scenarios because a large amount of data needs to be stored.

D. Deduplication is not recommended for backup scenarios because all backup data must be retained.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

In file sharing scenarios, which factors affect the performance of clients served by Huawei OceanStor 9000?

A. Application characteristics

B. Feature configuration

C. Service network

D. Hardware configuration of the OceanStor 9000

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which of the following is not supported by HyperMetro?

A. Data zero copy

B. FastWrite

C. Memory ballooning

D. Optimized cross-site access

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

When creating disk domains select the option “All available disks” and then manually select disks.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

HyperClone supports writing to both the primary and secondary LUN.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

For a storage pool you can change the hot spare policy in a later stage.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

OandM involves various capability requirements, including not only product technologies, but also management regulations and processes.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

SmartCache can support both SAN and NAS services.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Hyper-converged infrastructure (HCI) uses a data center architecture that pools compute capacity, file storage, memory, and network resources and manages them as public entities.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

At the time of creation a SmartThin LUN does not occupy storage space.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Huawei OceanStor Distributed Storage must be equipped with a minimum of three nodes that can vary in types.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Your customer has a FlexPod configuration with a 4-node NetApp AFF A300 storage cluster that uses only NSE drives.

Which two solutions allow the customer to expand the current storage system? (Choose two.)

A. a two-node AFF A200 with a 3.8 TB NSE SSD

B. a DS224C with twenty-four 3.8 TB SSDs

C. a DS4246 with twenty-four 6 TB NL-SAS HDDs

D. a two-node FAS8200 with a 4 TB NL-SAS HDD

Correct Answer: BD


Question 2:

A customer wants to deploy a FlexPod solution that involves directly connecting the NetApp AFF storage using the FCoE protocol to the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects.

In this scenario, which Cisco UCS Fibre Channel mode would be used to accomplish this task?

A. trunk mode

B. end host mode

C. switching mode

D. access mode

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.netapp.com/media/16411-nva-0025-deploy.pdf


Question 3:

The storage administrator must change the vHBA settings bound to a template associated with a production server.

What happens when the settings are reconfigured in this scenario?

A. The vHBA configuration change does not affect LUN access.

B. The server that is associated with the service profile reboots.

C. The service profile template that is associated with the server is initialized.

D. The vHBA template is deleted from UCS Manager.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A customer has installed FlexPod and verified that all wiring connections are correct. However, the customer cannot see any FC LUNs from the NetApp AFF systems.

In this scenario, which three configuration elements should the customer verify? (Choose three.)

A. FC zoning

B. igroup configuration

C. ALUA settings

D. FC portsets E. MTU configuration

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 5:

You are a data center architect at a service provider. You need to configure a new multi-tenant FlexPod service offering.

Which three UCS Manager features will you need to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)

A. auto discovery

B. role-based access control

C. service profiles

D. virtualization support

E. policies

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 6:

A customer is evaluating management tools for a new FlexPod infrastructure. They desire a tool that can orchestrate the provisioning of UCS compute nodes, NetApp storage, and VMware networking.

Which tool satisfies the requirements of this customer\’s heterogeneous environment?

A. UCS Central

B. NetApp OnCommand Unified Manager

C. NetApp OnCommand Insight

D. UCS Director

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

A customer has deployed a FlexPod Datacenter with Red Hat Enterprise Linux OpenStack Platform. The Cinder storage volumes that are attached to the Nova instances are not available.

Based on the terms of the cooperative support model, which three companies would the customer use to open a support case? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco

B. VMware

C. Microsoft

D. NetApp

E. Red Hat

Correct Answer: ADE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/UCS_CVDs/ flexpod_openstack_osp6_design.html


Question 8:

Your customer has a FlexPod implementation and wants to use life-cycle management to validate, monitor, and optimize the FlexPod infrastructure.

In this situation, which management tool should your customer use?

A. NetApp OnCommand Unified Manager

B. NetApp Converged System Advisor

C. Cisco UCS Manager

D. Cisco UCS Director

Correct Answer: D

Cisco UCS Director can be an integral companion for FlexPod because it allows holistic management through centralized automation and orchestration from a single, unified view. When FlexPod and Cisco UCS Director are combined, IT can shift time and focus from managing infrastructure to delivering new service innovation. Used together, FlexPod and Cisco UCS Director deliver: Reference: https://www.netapp.com/media/16859-tr-3884.pdf


Question 9:

Click the Exhibit button.

A customer wants to ensure that FlexPod Datacenter connections to the storage layer are highly available. Which two configurations shown in the exhibit satisfy the customer\’s requirements? (Choose two.)

A. I.

B. II.

C. III.

D. IV

Correct Answer: CD


Question 10:

A customer has a FlexPod Express configuration with a FAS2720 system. The company has opened a new remote location and will purchase a FlexPod Express configuration with a FAS2750 system. The business requires that the data be replicated to the new location.

Which two software applications accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. SnapVault

B. SnapRestore

C. SnapMirror

D. FlexCache

Correct Answer: CD

FlexClone: Instant virtual copies with file and volume granularity SnapMirror: Integrated data replication technology for simple, efficient, flexible disaster recovery and backup use cases

Reference: https://www.inneo.ch/files/content/Informationstechnologien/Storage-Server-Netzwerk/ datenblatt-netapp-fas-2700-storage.pdf


Question 11:

A customer wants to design a FlexPod configuration based on a CVD that was published 10 months ago. The customer wants to ensure that they are using the latest hardware and software versions.

In this scenario, which two tools are used to identify the latest supported hardware and software? (Choose two.)

A. NetApp Interoperability Matrix Tool

B. NetApp OnCommand System Manager

C. Cisco UCS Hardware and Software Interoperability Matrix

D. Cisco UCS Director

Correct Answer: CD

C: When using this matrix to determine recommended driver versions for you server configuration, please reference the server\’s Blade/Rack Bundle firmware version for the recommended driver in the event that your servers are running Mixed Firmware from your Infrastructure Bundle.

D: Cisco UCS Director delivers unified, highly secure management for supported compute, network, storage, and virtualization platforms and for the industry\’s leading converged infrastructure solutions

Reference: https://ucshcltool.cloudapps.cisco.com/public/# https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-director/release-notes/6-7/cisco-ucsdirector-release-notes-67.html


Question 12:

You are designing a FlexPod solution that requires 32 ports running at 40 Gbps.

To satisfy this requirement, which Cisco Fabric Interconnect should you deploy?

A. 6332-16UP

B. 6332

C. 6248UP

D. 6296UP

Correct Answer: B

FI 6332 is a one-rack-unit (1RU) 40 Gigabit Ethernet, and FCoE switch offering up to 2.56 Tbps throughput

and up to 32 ports. The switch has 32 40Gbps fixed Ethernet.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/UCS_CVDs/

flexpod_esxi60u2_fc_design.html


Question 13:

You are configuring high availability within the network layer of your FlexPod configuration.

In this scenario, what are two Cisco best practices for designing vPC on your Cisco 9000 Series switches? (Choose two.)

A. Peer keep-alive connectivity between the switches should be established.

B. A minimum of four 10GB Ethernet connections are required for vPC.

C. The vPC auto-recovery feature should be enabled.

D. Port channels should be configured for LACP passive mode.

Correct Answer: AB

vPC also relies on the periodic keepalive messages to determine when one of the connected devices on the peer link fails. vPC peer link ?The link used to synchronize states between the vPC peer devices. Both ends must be on 10-Gigabit Ethernet or 40-Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/ c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/6-x/interfaces/configuration/guide/ b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX-OS_Interfaces_Configuration_Guide/ b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_Interfaces_Configuration_Guide_chapter_0111.html


Question 14:

A customer is using a FlexPod implementation that has 10 Gbps uplinks from the B-Series chassis to the fabric interconnect. The customer wants to upgrade the links to 40 Gbps.

In this scenario, which model of Cisco UCS server IOM is required?

A. 2204XP.

B. 2208XP

C. 2232

D. 2304

Correct Answer: A

The Cisco UCS 2204XP Fabric Extender (Figure 7) has four 10 Gigabit Ethernet, FCoE-capable, SFP ports that connect the blade chassis to the fabric interconnect. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/ en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series-blade-servers/spec_sheet_c17644224.pdf


Question 15:

A customer has several existing standalone Cisco UCS C-Series servers that they would like to repurpose and add to their FlexPod Datacenter solution.

Which action should the customer perform on these servers before using UCS Manager?

A. Zero-out the FlexFlash cards on each server.

B. Reboot the CIMC on each server.

C. Remove the hard disks on each server.

D. Reset the CIMC to the factory settings on each server.

Correct Answer: D

On rare occasions, such as an issue with the current running firmware, troubleshooting a server may require you to reset the CIMC to the factory default. When this happens, all user-configurable settings are reset. This procedure is not part of the normal server maintenance. After you reset the CIMC, you are logged off and must log in again. You may also lose connectivity and may need to reconfigure the network settings. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/cli/config/guide/1-0_1x/ b_Cisco_CIMC_C250_CLI_Configuration_Guide/ Cisco_CIMC_C250_CLI_Configuration_Guide_chapter13.pdf


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Question 1:

Which output from Sprint Planning provides the Development Team with a target and overarching direction for the Sprint?

A. The Sprint Backlog.

B. The Sprint Goal

C. The release plan.

D. Sprint Review minutes.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

How should a Development Team deal with non-functional requirements?

A. Ensure every Increment meets them.

B. Make sure the release department understands these requirements, but it is not the Development Team\’s responsibility.

C. Handle them during the Integration Sprint preceding the Release Sprint.

D. Assign them to the lead developers on the team.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

When is a Sprint over?

A. When the Product Owner says it is done.

B. When all Product Backlog items meet their definition of “Done”.

C. When all the tasks are completed.

D. When the time-box expires.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Scrum has a role called “Project Manager”.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

What are two good ways for the Development Team to make non-functional requirements visible? (Choose two.)

A. Put them on a separate list on the Scrum board, available for all to see.

B. Add them to the Product Backlog and keep the Product Owner posted on the expected effort.

C. Run the integration and regression tests before the end of the Sprint, and capture the open work for the Sprint Backlog of the next Sprint.

D. Add them to the definition of “Done” so the work is taken care of every Sprint.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 6:

How much time is required after a Sprint to prepare for the next Sprint?

A. The break between Sprints is time-boxed to 1 week for 30 day Sprints, and usually less for shorter sprints.

B. Enough time for the requirements for the next Sprint to be determined and documented.

C. Enough time for the Development team to finish the testing from the last Sprint.

D. None. A new Sprint starts immediately following the end of the previous Sprint.

E. All of the above are allowed depending on the situation.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

In the Sprint Planning meeting, the Product Owner and the Development Team were unable to reach a clear understanding about the highest order Product Backlog items. Because of this, the Development Team couldn\’t figure out how many Product Backlog items it could forecast for the upcoming Sprint. They were able to agree on a Sprint Goal, however.

Which of the following two actions should the Scrum Master support? (Choose two.)

A. Cancel the Sprint. Send the entire team to an advanced Scrum training and then start a new Sprint.

B. Forecast the most likely Product Backlog items to meet the goal and create a Sprint Backlog based on a likely initial design and plan. Once the time-box for the Sprint Planning meeting is over, start the Sprint and continue to analyze, decompose, and create additional functionality during the Sprint.

C. Continue the Sprint Planning meeting past its time-box until an adequate number of Product Backlog items are well enough understood for the Development Team to make a complete forecast. Then start the Sprint.

D. Discuss in the upcoming Sprint Retrospective why this happened and what changes will make it less likely to recur.

E. Ask everyone to take as much time as needed to analyze the Product Backlog first, and then reconvene another Sprint Planning meeting.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

Which answer best describes the topics covered in Sprint Planning?

A. What to do and who will do it.

B. How conditions have changed and how the Product Backlog should evolve.

C. What can be done and how to do it.

D. What went wrong in the last Sprint and what to do differently this Sprint.

E. Who is on the team and what team member roles will be.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

What is the purpose of a Sprint Review?

A. To take time to judge the validity of the project.

B. To inspect the product Increment with the stakeholders and collect feedback on next steps.

C. To review the Scrum Team\’s activities and processes during the Sprint.

D. To build team sprint.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Who determines when it is appropriate to update the Sprint Backlog during a Sprint?

A. The Project Manager.

B. The Development Team.

C. The Scrum Team.

D. The Product Owner.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Who must attend the Daily Scrum?

A. The Scrum Master and Product Owner.

B. The Development Team.

C. The Development Team and Product Owner.

D. The Scrum Team.

E. The Development Team and Scrum Master.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

When do Development Team members take ownership of a Sprint Backlog item? (Choose the best answer.)

A. At the Sprint planning meeting.

B. During the Daily Scrum.

C. Never. All Sprint Backlog Items are “owned” by the entire Scrum Team.

D. Whenever a team member can accommodate more work.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

The purpose of a Sprint is to produce a done Increment of product.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Who creates the definition of “Done”?

A. The Scrum Master as he/she is responsible for the Development Team\’s productivity.

B. The Scrum Team, in a collaborative effort where the result is the common denominator of all members\’ definition.

C. The Product Owner as he/she is responsible for the product\’s success.

D. The development organization (or Development Team if none is available from the development organization).

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Five new Scrum Teams have been created to build one product. A few of the developers on one of the Development Teams ask the Scrum Master how to coordinate their work with the order teams. What should the Scrum Master do?

A. Teach the Product Owner to work with the lead developers on ordering Product Backlog in a way to avoid too much technical and development overlap during a Sprint.

B. Teach them that it is their responsibility to work with the other teams to create an integrated Increment.

C. Collect the Sprint tasks from the teams at the end of their Sprint Planning and merge that into a consolidated plan for the entire Sprint.

D. Visit the five teams each day to inspect that their Sprint Backlogs are aligned.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Selena has run out of memory on her phone\’s SD card. She has decided to store the files she has accumulated on a third-party cloud service provider\’s drives. Which of the following is a typical issue that she may encounter?

A. The files become corrupted due to an attack from a hacker botnet.

B. The files become unavailable whenever Internet connectivity is lost.

C. The files become unavailable because they are being shared with other users.

D. The files become corrupted because the provider uses a proprietary compression algorithm during transit.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

When you are using stock images in your Web site, a royalty-free license allows you to:

A. use the images without paying a fee for each use.

B. resell or transfer the images without paying a fee.

C. use the images without purchasing a license.

D. assume copyright of the images.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

The App-A-Day company offers software applications for various topics. When a customer purchases a desired application from the App-A-Day online store, he is directed to a page where he can download the application directly. When the customer is redirected and begins downloading the application, which specific standard protocol is most likely transferring the application?

A. FTP

B. HTTPS

C. HTTP

D. SMTP

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

When using cloud-based services to host company data, a company\’s disaster recovery plan should include strategies for:

A. creating redundancy and ensuring there is an exclusive contract with the cloud service provider.

B. distributing data and software services across multiple cloud service providers.

C. creating redundancy and using multiple cloud service providers.

D. using a single well-established cloud service provider.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which set of standards developed by the W3C Web Accessibility Initiative (WAI) project provides a universal set of standards promoting accessibility for all Web users, including those with disabilities?

A. Web Content Accessibility Guidelines

B. User Agent Accessibility Guidelines

C. W3C Authoring Tool Accessibility Guidelines

D. Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What does the following represent?

2E22: 4F00: 000E: 00D0:A267:97FF:FE6E:FE34

A. A MAC address

B. AnlPv4address

C. An IPv6 address

D. An IP diagnostic loopback address

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Raoul has received a file attachment from a known individual. He has no reason to expect files from this individual. Which of the following is an effective security strategy for Raoul to take?

A. Open the file attachment and use anti-virus software to scan it.

B. Before opening the attachment, use anti-virus software to scan the system\’s hard disk.

C. Make back-up copies of important files so that it is possible to recover them in case of an incident.

D. Before opening the attachment, call or send a text or instant message to the individual to verify that he or she meant to send it.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which choice lists the CSS standard(s) that HTNL5 supports?

A. CSS3 standard only

B. CSS2andCSS3standardsonly

C. CSSlandCSS2standardsonly

D. All CSS standards (CSS1, CSS2 and CSS3)

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Jenny recently switched from broadband cable Internet to ADSL service with her local phone company. To economize, she chose the self-installation option. It appears that her ADSL modem is not allowing her to connect to the Internet. Which setting should she check first?

A. Loopback address

B. Software version

C. Default gateway

D. Device name

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

ABC Company develops its Own database applications. ABC is considering migrating to cloud services to accommodate the company\’s growth. What strategy should ABC use to ensure continuous data protection if it begins using cloud services?

A. Cloud-only solution

B. Regional systems solution

C. Location systems solution

D. Multiple cloud-service providers

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Skylar has been asked by the HR Department to create a Web page for the company\’s intra net site that compares the company\’s four different medical insurance plans. To accomplish this effectively in HTML5, Skylar should:

A. use document structure tags to lay out the page and use a table to organize the medical insurance plan information.

B. use JavaScript to lay out the page and use a table within the page to organize the medical insurance plan information.

C. use tables to lay out the page and use the

 tag inside the table to organize the medical insurance plan information. 

D. use CSS to lay out the page and use the

 element to organize the medical insurance plan information. 

Correct Answer: A