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Question 1:

Which statements about partitions are correct? (Choose 3.)

A. Extended partitions can be subdivided into logical partitions.

B. A primary partition consists of a continuous range of cylinders.

C. Logical partitions do not require entries in the main partition table.

D. If you use only primary partitions, you are limited to eight partitions per disk.

E. SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 10 can only be installed on a primary partition.

F. To install more than one operating system on a partition, the partition has to include the entire cylinder range.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 2:

How do you create a file called destination containing the same ACLs currently set for the file called source?

A. getfacl source > destination

B. getfacl -c source destination

C. getfacl source | cp destination

D. getfacl -x source > destination

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

In which file is the name resolution configured?

A. /etc/dns.conf

B. /etc/resolv.conf

C. /etc/HOSTNAME

D. /etc/nameservers

E. /etc/sysconfig/network/dns

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which statement about the /sbin/ldconfig command is correct?

A. The ldconfig command is used to link directories.

B. The ldconfig command is used to configure an LDAP connection.

C. The ldconfig command is used to update the software library cache.

D. The ldconfig command is used to show dynamic libraries needed by a program.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which file can be used to send a message to users logging in on a text console?

A. /etc/net

B. /etc/motd

C. /etc/message

D. /var/log/messages

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

You would like to run command2 only if command1 did not complete successfully.

Which command accomplishes this task?

A. command1 ;; command2

B. command1 || command2

C. command1 >> command2

D. command1 andand command2

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

You want to use the ip command to set a new address for your network device eth0. It is a standard class C network. The broadcast address and network route should be set accordingly. Which command is correct?

A. ip address set 192.168.0.10/24 dev eth0

B. ip address add 192.168.0.10/24 dev eth0

C. ip addr add 192.168.0.10/24 dev eth0 brd

D. ip addr add eth0 192.168.0.10/24 eth0 broadcast 192.168.255.255

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which parts can be combined in the syslog-ng configuration file (/etc/syslog-ng/syslog-ng.conf) to specify what information is logged? (Choose 3.)

A. Alerts

B. Users

C. Filters

D. Sources

E. Log Paths

F. Destinations

G. Date and Time

Correct Answer: CDF


Question 9:

In a terminal window, which command displays the name of the directory you are currently in?

A. dir

B. pwd

C. where

D. current-dir

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which key combination can you use to stop a process that runs in the foreground?

A. Ctrl X

B. Ctrl Z

C. Ctrl Alt X

D. Ctrl Backspace

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

You have a /tmp/data directory containing the files .file, file1, and file2. You want to delete the directory and its content. In a terminal window, which command accomplishes this?

A. rm /tmp/data/

B. rm -r /tmp/data/

C. rmdir /tmp/data/

D. deldir /tmp/data/

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Routes to the directly connected network are automatically set up when a device is started. All other routes are saved in which configuration file?

A. /etc/route

B. /etc/routes

C. /etc/routes.conf

D. /etc/network/routes

E. /etc/sysconfig/routes

F. /etc/sysconfig/network/routes

Correct Answer: F


Question 13:

What information do you need to set up an LDAP client? (Choose 4.)

A. LDAP version

B. LDAP base DN

C. Kind of encryption

D. Synchronization frequency

E. Address of the LDAP server

F. File name of the LDAP database

Correct Answer: ABCE


Question 14:

You have a test directory with the following permissions: rwx—— You want to change the permissions to the following values: r-xr-xr-x. Which command accomplishes this?

A. chmod 777 test

B. chmod a=rx test

C. chmod u=rx,a-rx test

D. chmod u w,g rx,o rx test

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What does the following line of the sudo configuration file mean? geeko ALL = /sbin/shutdown

A. All users are allowed to shut down the computer.

B. It allows the user geeko to shut down the computer.

C. All users (except geeko) are allowed to shut down the computer.

D. User geeko is allowed to shut down the computer with name ALL.

E. All users of the computer with the name geeko are allowed to shut down the computer.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

What Mapper function can you use to get the lookup value in Mapping Builder?

A. GetLookupValue

B. FindLookupValue

C. LookupValue

D. SearchLookupValue

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/integration-cloud-service/ocmap/using-oracle-mapper.pdf


Question 2:

Which three are types of certificates that can be imported from Settings?

A. Identity Certificate

B. Multi Domain SSL Certificate

C. Trust Certificate

D. Message Protection Certificate

E. Unified Communications Certificate

Correct Answer: ACD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/integration-cloud-service/icsug/managing-security-certificates.html#GUID-9F6A7704-A8DE-484E-8D8A-06D51AD9D13C


Question 3:

Which Enterprise Application System can be integrated with Oracle Internet of Things (IoT) Cloud Service?

A. any system capable of receiving HTTP connection or making HTTP requests

B. only systems which are deployed on Windows or Unix platform

C. a system which exposes REST Service

D. a system which exposes WSDL

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/iot-cloud/iotgs/developing-applications-oracle-internet-things-cloud-service.pdf


Question 4:

Which two are On-prem Connectivity Options with Oracle Integration Cloud (OIC)?

A. VPN

B. Connectivity Agent

C. PaaS Agent

D. Execution Agent

Correct Answer: BC


Question 5:

Which three are tasks that can be performed in the Monitoring page for device data messages and alert messages?

A. Create

B. Update

C. View

D. Filter

E. Search

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 6:

Which three options are available for Business rule conflict resolution in Process Cloud Service?

A. No Conflict

B. Skip

C. Override

D. Escalate

E. Conflict

Correct Answer: ACE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/process-cloud/user/adding-conflict-resolutions-decision-tables.html


Question 7:

Which two statements are true about Internet of Things (IoT)?

A. Different IOT approaches need to be established integrate different technologies such as mobile, cloud, big data, and analytics, and connects everyday objects to each other and to the Internet.

B. Cloud technology is well suited to enable IoT, offering high degrees of agility, low and flexible costs, and excellent resource utilization.

C. Using IoT, hospitality-based businesses can better track customer behavior and preferences to deliver rewards and more tailored services that differentiate their businesses.

D. IOT is not useful in asset tracking scenarios because there is an unavailability of low-cost connected devices and sensors that can be embedded into all of the various assets that need tracking.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.oracle.com/assets/oracle-iot-solution-brief-2632911-es.pdf


Question 8:

Which schema is used for defining the field structure of an analytic object?

A. Apache Avro schema

B. XSD schema

C. Database schema

D. XSL Schema

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/iot-cloud/iotgs/using-schemas-define-fields-analytics-objects.html


Question 9:

What are the four steps required to complete the task `create a connection\’?

A. Configure Connection Properties

B. Import SSL Certificate

C. Test Connection

D. Select an Adapter

E. Configure Lookup

F. Configure Connection Security

Correct Answer: ACDF

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/integration-cloud-service/icsug/creating-connections.html#GUID-10DBB72D-F6F9-4851-B2BA-9E593CF65F2E


Question 10:

What are two key benefits of Oracle Web Service Manager (OWSM) in the management and security of Web services across the organization?

A. Security is controlled by the developer of the service and this gives greater control to the development of the service.

B. OAuth services are used for REST based services.

C. OWSM provide a framework that is externalized and declarative outside of the web service implementation.

D. Developers no longer need to understand security specifications and security implementation details.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/middleware/1212/owsm/OWSMC/owsm-intro.htm#OWSMC4166


Question 11:

What two grants allow an API Manager to use a service in their API?

A. Manage Service

B. View All Details

C. Deploy API

D. Reference Service

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/api-platform-cloud/apfad/managing-api-grants.html#GUID-DDDD0BCC-E609-4F71-8882-B19A039B4A11


Question 12:

Which three background colors are displayed for autocomplete in Process Cloud Service?

A. Blue for complex binding names (their children may contain valid binding names)

B. Red for invalid binding names

C. Green for valid binding names

D. Orange for unmatched binding names

Correct Answer: ABC

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/process-cloud/user/binding-form-data-controls.html#GUID-CECD2F13-1E1A-457D-8BC8-8D605EEB213B


Question 13:

You receive a status code: 502 Proxy Error. Which is a possible event cause for this error?

A. when the proxy setup is incorrect

B. while registering a large number of devices using the Batch Registration feature under the Devices menu

C. while adding proxy for an enterprise application device

D. while the proxy server is not responding to the request

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/iot-cloud/iotgs/troubleshooting-management-console-issues.html


Question 14:

What options are available for Escalation and Expiration of human tasks in Process Cloud Service?

A. Escalate, Restart, Next or Previous

B. Renew, start, end, or error

C. Never Escalate, Skip, hierarchy, or New

D. Never expire, Expire, Renew, or Escalate

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/integration-cloud/user-processes/scheduling-task-expiration-renewal-or-escalation.html


Question 15:

Which REST API can be used for registering a device as third party device?

A. CREATE /iot/api/v2/private/partners

B. POST /iot/api/v2/private/partners

C. REGISTER /iot/api/v2/private/partners

D. PUT /iot/api/v2/private/partners

E. GET /iot/api/v2/private/partners

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Which three statements are true about usage subscriptions? (Choose three.)

A. A usage subscription can have either parent or child service points.

B. A usage subscription can be configured to include only a portion of a service point usage.

C. A usage subscription can have many service points.

D. Usage subscriptions are always related to an account.

E. A usage subscription can have only one service point.

Correct Answer: ACD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E38983_04/PDF/MDM_Configuration_Guide_v2_1_0_3.pdf (227)


Question 2:

On which three entities can proration be disabled? (Choose three.)

A. Calculation Rule Business Object

B. Bill Factor

C. Calculation Rule

D. Rate Version Calculation Group

E. Rate Schedule

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 3:

The base package usage transaction business object is represented by D2-UsageTransaction. The usage calculation engine or process drives the specifics of the usage to be calculated on this business object.

Based on this, which three configuration areas will have an impact on the usage calculation process? (Choose three.)

A. VEE rule

B. TOU map

C. Usage Rule

D. Factor Override

Correct Answer: BCD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E38983_04/PDF/MDM_Configuration_Guide_v2_1_0_3.pdf


Question 4:

Which describes derived values and their relationship with Final Measurements?

A. Final Measurements can have multiple derived values, which represent other values for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.

B. Derived values can have multiple Final Measurements, which represent other values for the same Initial Measurement Date/Time.

C. Final Measurements can have one derived value, which represents an alternative for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.

D. Final Measurements can have one derived value, which represents the Initial Measurement for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

What happens when a device\’s measuring components are reconfigured (a new measuring component will be read) at a service point?

A. A device with a new configuration type is created.

B. The original installation event is updated with the “removal” (expire old device configuration).

C. A device with a new configuration type is created. Moreover, a new installation event is created to `install” (new device configuration).

D. The original installation event is updated with the “removal” (expire old device configuration) and a new installation event is created to “install” (new device configuration).

E. A new installation event is created to “install” (new device configuration).

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

You are configuring a VEE group to include rules to be executed when loading the initial measurement data (IMD).

What is the VEE group directly associated with?

A. Device Type and Measuring Component Type

B. Measuring Component Type

C. Device Type

D. Usage Type

E. Device Configuration Type

Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E38983_04/PDF/MDM_Configuration_Guide_v2_1_0_3.pdf (151 152)


Question 7:

Using a base-supplied algorithm type, what is payment distribution priority typically determined by?

A. Customer Class and Service Agreement Type

B. Payment Type Debt Age

C. Debt Age

D. Service Agreement Type\’s Priority and Debt Age

E. Customer Class and Debt Age

Correct Answer: E


Question 8:

Your client has installed scalar devices to measure the solar energy generated (Export) and the energy received (Import) from the National Grid. This data is stored in separate measuring components (registers).

The validation rules are generally the same for both measuring components, but there is one exception. The Negative Consumption check applies only to energy received (import). Which two are possible configurations resulting in the Negative Consumption rule being checked for energy received (import) only? (Choose two.)

A. Modify the base VEE rule.

B. Remove the Negative Consumption check from the VEE group.

C. Create two different VEE groups.

D. Use Eligibility Criteria.

E. Use the Skip Flag in the VEE rule.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 9:

Your client has the following requirements:

Many customers are installing their own solar electrical generation equipment. When these customers generate more electricity than required for their own use, the surplus can he exported back to the power grid.

In order to measure this generation, we have installed special scalar devices. These devices have separate registers to measure the energy generated (export) and the energy received (import) from the National Grid. Both reads will be stored in kWh, but the import is subtractive and export is consumptive.

What solution should you choose to configure the measuring component types for these specific requirements?

A. Create two service points: one for subtractive import and the other for consumptive export.

B. Create one new measuring component type for creating two measuring components (one for import and the other for export) that will be linked to one scalar device.

C. Create one new measuring component type for creating a new measuring component that will be linked to two different scalar devices (one for import and the other for export).

D. Create two new measuring component types (one for subtractive import and the other for consumptive export) to enable the creation of two measuring components that will be linked to one scalar device.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

What Service Order activity types does the application include?

A. Start Service; Stop Service; Cut for Non-Payment; Reconnect Service for Payment; Exchange Meter; Move-In/Move-Out Service

B. Start Service; Stop Service; Install Meter; Remove Meter; Exchange Meter; Move-In/Move-Out Service

C. Enable Service; Disable Service; Install Meter; Remove Meter; Exchange Meter; Back-to-Back Service

D. Enable Service; Disable Service; Cut for Non-Payment; Reconnect Service for Payment; Exchange Meter; Back-to-Back Service

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E91711_01/PDF/MDM-SGG_Business_User_Guide_v2_2_0_2.pdf

(162)


Question 11:

When configuring the Get Scalar Details usage rule, which three attributes can be defined to retrieve scalar values? (Choose three.)

A. Unit of Measure

B. Device ID

C. Service Quantity Identifier

D. Time of Use

E. Service Point ID

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 12:

Which two plug-in spots can call the rating functionality using base package-supplied algorithm types? (Choose two.)

A. Adjustment Type – Adjustment FT Creation

B. Billable Charge Template

C. Bill Segment Type – Bill Segment Create

D. Adjustment Type – Generate

E. Bill Segment Type – Bill Segment FT Creation

Correct Answer: AE


Question 13:

If a customer makes a payment for more than what is due for the account, which entity contains the logic for how this overpayment should be handled?

A. Tender Type

B. Installation Options

C. Customer Class

D. Pay Segment Type

E. Service Agreement Type

Correct Answer: BCE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18733_01/pdf/E18368_V1_01.pdf


Question 14:

How many bill segment-related financial transactions do pay plans have?

A. depends on the number of payments that is part of the pay plan

B. one

C. depends on the number of bills that will contain the customer\’s pay plan commitments

D. none

E. unlimited

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which statement supports usage transaction calculation?

A. Bill determinants are derived from the final measurements for only interval measuring components or devices installed at the usage subscription\’s service points during the calculation period.

B. Bill determinants are derived from the initial measurement data of the measuring components devices installed at the usage subscription\’s service points during calculation period.

C. Bill determinants are derived from the final measurements of the measuring components or devices installed at the usage subscription\’s service points during the calculation period.

D. Bill determinants are derived from the initial measurement data of the measuring components installed at the usage subscription\’s devices during the calculation period.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Which attribute is used to assign a work item to a team area?

A. owner

B. category

C. component

D. stream

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

What are three ways builds are scheduled and initiated? (Choose three.)

A. at a continuous interval in minutes on selected days

B. at a particular time for defined days

C. by a user with appropriate permissions

D. automatically after a user saves a change

E. By adding the keyword “@build” in a work item comment

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 3:

What is the repository workspace?

A. a server-side entity that tracks items that have been placed under source control

B. a local workspace that holds a copy of specific sets of file versions that are stored in Rational Team Concert

C. the Eclipse workspace used when Rational Team Concert is launched by using the Eclipse client

D. the local copy of the latest file versions on a Rational Team Concert stream

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A project manager is creating a new plan view and does not like the default display. What are the other plan view display options?

A. Work Breakdown, Taskboard, and Roadmap

B. Load, Progress (Hours), and Progress (Size)

C. Tree, Bars, and Folder

D. Tree, Taskboard, and Kanban

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A customer expects a work item with an appropriate “Planned for” attribute to show on a team\’s iteration plan, but the work item is missing from the plan view. What is the most likely reason?

A. The work item\’s owner is unassigned.

B. The work item\’s owner is not part of the team owning the plan.

C. The work item\’s Filed Against category is not associated to the team owning the plan.

D. The work item\’s due date is set to a date after the iteration\’s end date.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

A work item appears in a plan when which two conditions are met? (Choose two.)

A. The Filed Against field has the work item category linked to the team area that owns the plan.

B. The Due Date field of the work item is on or before the end date of the plan.

C. The work item is assigned to a member of the team that owns the plan.

D. The Planned For field in the work item matches the Iteration field of the plan.

E. The work item is created by a member of the team area that owns the plan.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 7:

Which three work item types appear by default in the Scrum template? (Choose three.)

A. epic

B. milestone

C. defect

D. retrospective

E. sprint

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 8:

Which three statements are true about a project area? (Choose three)

A. A project area references project artifacts and stores the relationships between these artifacts.

B. A project area is not required as teams can decide to use a stream instead

C. A team area must be created before a project area can be created

D. Access to a project area and its artifacts is controlled by access control settings and permissions

E. A project area cannot be deleted from the repository but it can be archived

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 9:

Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. The Deliver operation copies change sets from the repository workspace to the flow target.

B. The Check-In operation copies files modified from the local sandbox to the repository workspace.

C. The Check-Out operation copies files from the repository workspace into the local sandbox.

D. The Accept operation copies change sets from the flow target into the repository workspace and local sandbox.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 10:

What are two purposes of work item categories? (Choose two.)

A. to determine which team member owns the work item

B. to determine which team owns the work item

C. to classify a work item according to functional area or team

D. to define the priority and the completion date of the work item

Correct Answer: BC


Question 11:

What are configurable items for the process template?

A. timelines, iterations, roles, and operational behaviors

B. plugins, cheat sheets, and dependencies

C. Java source code, source comments, and event handlers

D. categories, releases, and access control

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which element represents an area of activity within a project that typically has its own schedule, deliverables, teams, and process?

A. retrospective

B. release

C. process template

D. timeline

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

What are the distinct types of dashboards?

A. Project, Team, Personal, and Mini

B. Web, Eclipse, Workbench, and Visual Studio

C. Lifecycle, Full, Partial, and Mini

D. Public, Private, Semi-private, and Shared

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

In a work item comment, a practitioner types in “defect 2632”. Given that there is an existing work item with the ID number 2632, which statement is true?

A. The current comment is copied and added as a comment to “defect 2632”.

B. A parent-child relationship is created between the current work item and “defect 2632”

C. A link to “defect 2632” is created, and a click on the link opens the corresponding work item.

D. The content of “defect 2632” is copied into the current comment.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

What are the key components of the reporting solution?

A. Templates and pdf document generator

B. Application data storage and data warehouse

C. Reverse proxy server and security certificate

D. Build agent and the build system toolkit

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

An administrator is implementing LTO-5 drives in their backup solution. They plan to disable hardware data compression through their backup appliance.

What is the maximum data rate that can be achieved?

A. 80 MB/s

B. 120 MB/s

C. 140 MB/s

D. 160 MB/s

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

A server is experiencing issues with completing POST. The environment does not have a KVM or “Crash cart” available to view where the system is halting.

Which method can an administrator use to determine the first place to start troubleshooting?

A. Run OpenManage Essentials

B. Check rear lights on the server chassis

C. Run Repository manager

D. Check iDRAC Post Code

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

What advantage do NVDIMMs have over other server-based memory technologies?

A. Operate at lower voltages to save on power costs.

B. Lower cost per GB of capacity

C. Require less cooling than traditional memory DIMMs

D. Can retain contents even after a power loss

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://topics-cdn.dell.com/pdf/poweredge-r740_users-guide3_en-us.pdf


Question 4:

What is an accurate statement in reference to software RAID?

A. Software RAID does not have any data integrity issues

B. Software RAID requires a hardware license

C. Software RAID is an additional cost

D. Software RAID uses CPU resources

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

What types of data transfer are used by Dell EMC servers to connect mass storage devices?

A. USB, Ethernet, SSD, and CSI

B. SAS, USB, Ethernet, and SSID

C. SSID, CSI, USB, and SAS

D. Ethernet, SSID, CSI, and SAS

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which RAID level is recommended for high speed data access and maximum storage capacity?

A. RAID 0

B. RAID 1

C. RAID 5

D. RAID 6

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

What is the Dell EMC iSM?

A. Agent that expands iDRAC management functionality into the host operating system

B. Program that is installed and provides one-to-one systems management functionality

C. Systems management console that simplifies monitoring of multiple Dell EMC servers

D. Out-of-band management platform on Dell EMC servers

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/article/pk/en/pkbsd1/sln310557/dell-emc-idrac-service-module? lang=en


Question 8:

Which protocol resolves IP addresses into MAC addresses?

A. ARP

B. DHCP

C. DNS

D. STP

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.globalknowledge.com/blog/2009/08/28/address-resolution-protocol-arp/


Question 9:

For which use case is Dell EMC OpenManage Essentials recommended for installation?

A. Comprehensive, one-to-one systems management solution for remote or local servers

B. Management console for one-to-many monitoring of Dell EMC infrastructure

C. Operation of hardware while iDRAC is non-functional

D. Management and integration of operating system updates across an entire environment

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/home/pk/en/pkbsd1/drivers/driversdetails?driverid=3mrw4


Question 10:

What occurs during the Data Wiping process?

A. Destroys CDs and DVDs by pulverizing and cross-cut shredding

B. Disposes sensitive data using file detection, disk formatting, and file encryption

C. Temporarily removes data from a readwrite medium so that it can no longer be read

D. Logically connects storage media to a bulk-wiping device

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/article/pk/en/pkbsd1/sln300245/using-the-dell-bios-data-wipe- function-for-optiplex-precision-and-latitude-systems-built-after-november-2015?lang=en


Question 11:

What is the purpose of the DNS role?

A. Send out emails from a server to a client

B. Translate domain names into IP address

C. transfer computer files between a client and a server

D. Distribute and update dynamic IP address

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which advanced feature does a Dell EMC energy-smart power supply offer?

A. Provides thermal management of the supply

B. Reverses airflow to meet data center requirements

C. Throttles output to power-heavy components

D. Ability to update firmware without the need for downtime

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

A system administrator wants to view the results of the Best Practices Analyzer (BPA) for their local server. Which Windows built-in tool can they use to accomplish this?

A. Activity Monitor

B. Server Manager-Local Server

C. Resource Monitor

D. Security Compliance Manager

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

What is a key characteristic of a Type 2 hypervisor?

A. Runs directly on the host with direct access to the hardware

B. Runs directly on the host without direct access to the hardware

C. Runs on an operating system installed on the host with direct access to the hardware

D. Runs on an operating system installed on the host without direct access to the hardware

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://searchservervirtualization.techtarget.com/definition/hosted-hypervisor-Type-2- hypervisor


Question 15:

What distinguishes server CPUs from client CPUs?

A. Server CPUs have no overlocking features; client CPUs do have them

B. Server CPUs use identical socket types, client CPUs use multiple socket types

C. Server CPUs frequently have fewer cores and more processing power than client CPUs

D. Servers tend to have fewer CPUs installed than clients

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.quora.com/How-can-you-describe-the-difference-between-server-CPU-and- desktop-CPU


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[PDF and VCE] Free 312-39 PDF Real Exam Questions and Answers Free Download

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Question 1:

Bonney\’s system has been compromised by a gruesome malware.

What is the primary step that is advisable to Bonney in order to contain the malware incident from spreading?

A. Complaint to police in a formal way regarding the incident

B. Turn off the infected machine

C. Leave it to the network administrators to handle

D. Call the legal department in the organization and inform about the incident

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

According to the forensics investigation process, what is the next step carried out right after collecting the evidence?

A. Create a Chain of Custody Document

B. Send it to the nearby police station

C. Set a Forensic lab

D. Call Organizational Disciplinary Team

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which of the following directory will contain logs related to printer access?

A. /var/log/cups/Printer_log file

B. /var/log/cups/access_log file

C. /var/log/cups/accesslog file

D. /var/log/cups/Printeraccess_log file

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which of the following command is used to enable logging in iptables?

A. $ iptables -B INPUT -j LOG

B. $ iptables -A OUTPUT -j LOG

C. $ iptables -A INPUT -j LOG

D. $ iptables -B OUTPUT -j LOG

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://tecadmin.net/enable-logging-in-iptables-on-linux/


Question 5:

Ray is a SOC analyst in a company named Queens Tech. One Day, Queens Tech is affected by a DoS/DDoS attack. For the containment of this incident, Ray and his team are trying to provide additional bandwidth to the network devices and increasing the capacity of the servers.

What is Ray and his team doing?

A. Blocking the Attacks

B. Diverting the Traffic

C. Degrading the services

D. Absorbing the Attack

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Identify the attack when an attacker by several trial and error can read the contents of a password file present in the restricted etc folder just by manipulating the URL in the browser as shown: http://www.terabytes.com/process.php./../../../../etc/passwd

A. Directory Traversal Attack

B. SQL Injection Attack

C. Denial-of-Service Attack

D. Form Tampering Attack

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://doc.lagout.org/security/SQL Injection Attacks and Defense.pdf


Question 7:

Which encoding replaces unusual ASCII characters with “%” followed by the character\’s two-digit ASCII code expressed in hexadecimal?

A. Unicode Encoding

B. UTF Encoding

C. Base64 Encoding

D. URL Encoding

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://ktflash.gitbooks.io/ceh_v9/content/125_countermeasures.html


Question 8:

Which of the following formula represents the risk?

A. Risk = Likelihood × Severity × Asset Value

B. Risk = Likelihood × Consequence × Severity

C. Risk = Likelihood × Impact × Severity

D. Risk = Likelihood × Impact × Asset Value

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

The Syslog message severity levels are labelled from level 0 to level 7. What does level 0 indicate?

A. Alert

B. Notification

C. Emergency

D. Debugging

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Where will you find the reputation IP database, if you want to monitor traffic from known bad IP reputation using OSSIM SIEM?

A. /etc/ossim/reputation

B. /etc/ossim/siem/server/reputation/data

C. /etc/siem/ossim/server/reputation.data

D. /etc/ossim/server/reputation.data

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

According to the Risk Matrix table, what will be the risk level when the probability of an attack is very low and the impact of that attack is major?

A. High

B. Extreme

C. Low

D. Medium

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.moheri.gov.om/userupload/Policy/IT Risk Management Framework.pdf (17)


Question 12:

Which of the following command is used to view iptables logs on Ubuntu and Debian distributions?

A. $ tailf /var/log/sys/kern.log

B. $ tailf /var/log/kern.log

C. # tailf /var/log/messages

D. # tailf /var/log/sys/messages

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://tecadmin.net/enable-logging-in-iptables-on-linux/


Question 13:

Which of the following technique involves scanning the headers of IP packets leaving a network to make sure that the unauthorized or malicious traffic never leaves the internal network?

A. Egress Filtering

B. Throttling

C. Rate Limiting

D. Ingress Filtering

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://grokdesigns.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/04/CEH-v9-Notes.pdf (99)


Question 14:

Which of the following formula is used to calculate the EPS of the organization?

A. EPS = average number of correlated events / time in seconds

B. EPS = number of normalized events / time in seconds

C. EPS = number of security events / time in seconds

D. EPS = number of correlated events / time in seconds

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

An organization is implementing and deploying the SIEM with following capabilities.

What kind of SIEM deployment architecture the organization is planning to implement?

A. Cloud, MSSP Managed

B. Self-hosted, Jointly Managed C. Self-hosted, Self-Managed

D. Self-hosted, MSSP Managed

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Is this a service that HPE partners can deliver on behalf of HPE for HPE GreenLake solutions? Solution: HPE Cloud Consulting Services.

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.businesswire.com/news/home/20201110005782/en/Hewlett-Packard-Enterprise-and-Wipro-Partner-to-Deliver-Hybrid-Cloud-and-Infrastructure-Solutions-as-a-Service-With-HPE-GreenLake


Question 2:

Is this a feature of the Solution sates Enablement Toolkit (SSET)?

Solution: It makes adding an End BOM easy by automatically copying Start BOM fields

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

You are helping guide your customer through the HPE GreenLake delivery process. The customer wants

to start using their new GreenLake solution as quickly as possible

Is this a factor that can increase the the amount of time before services will be up and running?

Solution: The solution was quoted trough the HPE GreenLaKe Quick Quote tool.

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

A customer has an HPE GreenLake virtualization solution based on HPE SimpliVity, deployed at the main data center.

Is this a solution change for which you can submit an HPE GreenLake Capacity Increase Change Order? Solution: In anticipation of a new project, the customer wants to increase capacity at the same site, even

though utilization is currently under 90 percent.

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/us/en/greenlake/virtual-machines.html


Question 5:

Is this a benefit of HPE GreenLake Lighthouse for partners?

Solution: It reduces configuration complexity and leis customers deploy multiple services on one platform.

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

You have qualified a customer for the Swift sales program and entered the solution into the GLQQ tool Is this the next step in the sales process?

Solution: Complete the change order process to offer a complete HPE GreenLake solution

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

is this statement true?

Solution: You can promise customers they will see benefits from HPE GreenLake Quick Quote Tool benefits outputs.

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

You proposed an HPE GreenLake solution to a customer and the customer is concerned about being locked into HPE.

Is this an appropriate response to the customer\’s concern? Solution: Reassure the customer that HPE GreenLake solutions can include third-party products.

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://searchconvergedinfrastructure.techtarget.com/feature/What-is-HPE-GreenLake-andhow-does-it-work


Question 9:

Is this statement true?

Solution: HPE GreenLake Quick Quote tool benefits outputs are calculated using the Forrester Consulting Total Economic Impact study.

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://tools.totaleconomicimpact.com/go/hpe/greenlake/index.html


Question 10:

Is this an example of a unit of measure mal is metered by HPE for usage each month? Solution: Billable tiers

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Is this an appropriate use case for HPE GreenLake?

Solution: A customer wants to improve the company\’s ability to forecast the IT capacity it will need.

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A customer purchased a custom HPE GreenLake solution last year. The customer tells you the company is starting a new pilot project and is concerned about running out of capacity. Current utilization peaks at around 88 percent, but is usually lower.

Is this part of the process that you should complete to meet the customer\’s changing needs?

Solution: Create a new Start BOM and End BOM for a new custom solution based on the new customer requirements.

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

For a custom solution, Is this when the partner and distributor add markup to the unit of consumption? Solution: After HPE creates units of consumption pricing and sends to the Distributor of Tier 1 Partner.

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Does HPE offer this service under the monitoring level of HPE Adaptive Management Services? Solution: health checks

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Is this a way to compare HPE GreenLake to traditional capital purchases to show the lower total cost of ownership with HPE GreenLake?

Solution: Explain that with traditional capital purchases, customers cannot respond to demand and risk losing revenue or must overprovision resources.

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://cdw-prod.adobecqms.net/content/dam/cdw/on-domain-cdw/brands/hewlett-packardenterprise/hpe-greenlake-flex-capacity-brochure.pdf


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Question 1:

Dorado V3 supports NVMe SSDs

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which is the function of BBU?

A. System power supply

B. Heat dissipation

C. Power failure protection

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which of the following functions is NOT supported by the OceanStor F V5?

A. Unified storage

B. Deduplication and compression

C. Tiered storage

D. HyperMetro (NAS)

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which of the following has the best random read/write performance for small files?

A. SSD

B. SAS

C. SATA

D. NL-SAS

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

2200 V3 does not support scale-out.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which of the following NL-SAS disk specifications does OceanStor V5 NOT support?

A. 2 TB

B. 3 TB

C. 4TB

D. 6 TB

E. 8 TB

F. 10 TB

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

You can migrate data from Dorado V3 to traditional storage.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Dorado V3 supports post-process compression. Data can be compressed after being written into SSDs.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What is the full name of WORM?

A. Write once, read many

B. Write many, read once

C. Write many, read many

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

2200 V3/2600 V3 supports 2 U 2.5-inch disk enclosure, 4 U 3.5-inch disk enclosure, and 4 U high- density disk enclosure.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

The competitors of Dorado V3 include; (Multiple Choice)

A. XtremlO

B. VMAX-AF

C. PureStorage

D. HP8450

E. NetAppA700

Correct Answer: ABCDE


Question 12:

Which of the following models are OceanStor V5 series storage? (Multiple Choice)

A. 2600 V5

B. 2800 V5

C. 5300 V5

D. 5500 V5

E. 5600 V5

F. 5800 V5

Correct Answer: BCDEF


Question 13:

The built-in BBU/CBU and the coffer disks can protect against cache data loss in the case of unexpected power-off.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

How many host ports can a 2200 V3 support?

A. 8

B. 12

C. 16

D. 24

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which of the following descriptions about the models supported by the Dorado V3 are correct? (Multiple Choice)

A. The Dorado5000 V3 SAS supports a dual-controller architecture with 256 GB cache.

B. The Dorado5000 V3 NVMe supports a dual-controller architecture with 512 GB cache.

C. The Dorado6000 V3 SAS supports a dual-controller architecture with 256 GB cache or 512 GB cache.

D. The Dorado6000 V3 SAS supports a dual-controller architecture with 512 GB cache or 1 TB cache.

Correct Answer: ABD


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Question 1:

In the event that the primary FortiManager fails, which of the following actions must be performed to return the FortiManager HA to a working state?

A. Secondary device with highest priority will automatically be promoted to the primary role, and manually reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device

B. Reboot one of the secondary devices to promote it automatically to the primary role, and reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device.

C. Manually promote one of the secondary devices to the primary role, and reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device.

D. FortiManager HA state transition is transparent to administrators and does not require any reconfiguration.

Correct Answer: C

FortiManager_6.4_Study_Guide-Online page 346

FortiManager HA doesn\’t support IP takeover where an HA state transition is transparent to administrators. If a failure of the primary occurs, the administrator must take corrective action to resolve the problem that may include invoking the state transition. If the primary device fails, the administrator must do the following in order to return the FortiManager HA to a working state:

1.

Manually reconfigure one of the secondary devices to become the primary device

2.

Reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device


Question 2:

In addition to the default ADOMs, an administrator has created a new ADOM named Training for FortiGate devices. The administrator sent a device registration to FortiManager from a remote FortiGate. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. The FortiGate will be added automatically to the default ADOM named FortiGate.

B. The FortiGate will be automatically added to the Training ADOM.

C. By default, the unregistered FortiGate will appear in the root ADOM.

D. The FortiManager administrator must add the unregistered device manually to the unregistered device manually to the Training ADOM using the Add Device wizard

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortimanager/7.0.0/administration-guide/718923/root-adom


Question 3:

View the following exhibit: How will FortiManager try to get updates for antivirus and IPS?

A. From the list of configured override servers with ability to fall back to public FDN servers

B. From the configured override server list only

C. From the default server fdsl.fortinet.com

D. From public FDNI server with highest index number only

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://community.fortinet.com/t5/Fortinet-Forum/Clarification-of-FortiManager-s-quot-ServerOverride-Mode-quot/td-p/89973


Question 4:

An administrator would like to create an SD-WAN using central management in the Training ADOM. To create an SD-WAN using central management, which two steps must be completed? (Choose two.)

A. Specify a gateway address when you create a default SD-WAN static route

B. Enable SD-WAN central management in the Training ADOM

C. Configure and install the SD-WAN firewall policy and SD-WAN static route before installing the SDWAN template settings

D. Remove all the interface references such as routes or policies that will be a part of SD- WAN member interfaces

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.0.0/cookbook/676493/removing-existingconfiguration-references-to-interfaces


Question 5:

Which two conditions trigger FortiManager to create a new revision history? (Choose two.)

A. When configuration revision is reverted to previous revision in the revision history

B. When FortiManager installs device-level changes to a managed device

C. When FortiManager is auto-updated with configuration changes made directly on a managed device

D. When changes to device-level database is made on FortiManager

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://help.fortinet.com/fmgr/50hlp/56/5-6-1/FortiManager_Admin_Guide/1000_Device% 20Manager/1500_Manage_device_configs/0 600_Manage config rev history.htm


Question 6:

Which configuration setting for FortiGate is part of a device-level database on FortiManager?

A. VIP and IP Pools

B. Firewall policies

C. Security profiles

D. Routing

Correct Answer: D

The FortiManager stores the FortiGate configuration details in two distinct databases. The device-level database includes configuration details related to device-level settings, such as interfaces, DNS, routing, and more. The ADOM-level database includes configuration details related to firewall policies, objects, and security profiles.


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the output are true? (Choose two.)

A. The latest revision history for the managed FortiGate does match with the FortiGate running configuration

B. Configuration changes have been installed to FortiGate and represents FortiGate configuration has been changed

C. The latest history for the managed FortiGate does not match with the device-level database

D. Configuration changes directly made on the FortiGate have been automatically updated to device-level database

Correct Answer: AC

STATUS: dev-db: modified; conf: in sync; cond: pending; dm: retrieved; conn: up-dev-db: modified – This is the device setting status which indicates that configuration changes were made on FortiManager.- conf: in sync – This is the sync status which shows that the latest revision history is in sync with Fortigate\’s configuration.- cond: pending – This is the configuration status which says that configuration changes need to be installed. Most probably a retrieve was done in the past (dm: retrieved) updating the revision history DB (conf: in sync) and FortiManager device level DB, now there is a new modification on FortiManager device level DB (dev-db: modified) which wasn\’t installed to FortiGate (cond: pending), hence; revision history DB is not aware of that modification and doesn\’t match device DB. Conclusion:- Revision DB does match FortiGate.- No changes were installed to FortiGate yet.- Device DB doesn\’t match Revision DB.- No changes were done on FortiGate (auto-update) but configuration was retrieved instead After an Auto-Update or Retrieve:device database = latest revision = FGT Then after a manual change on FMG end (but no install yet):latest revision = FGT (still) but now device database has been modified (is different). After reverting to a previous revision in revision history:device database = reverted revision != FGT


Question 8:

An administrator would like to review, approve, or reject all the firewall policy changes made by the junior administrators.

How should the Workspace mode be configured on FortiManager?

A. Set to workflow and use the ADOM locking feature

B. Set to read/write and use the policy locking feature

C. Set to normal and use the policy locking feature

D. Set to disable and use the policy locking feature

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://help.fortinet.com/fmgr/50hlp/52/5-2- 0/FMG_520_Online_Help/200_What\’sNew.03.03.html


Question 9:

Which two settings must be configured for SD-WAN Central Management? (Choose two.)

A. SD-WAN must be enabled on per-ADOM basis

B. You can create multiple SD-WAN interfaces per VDOM

C. When you configure an SD-WAN, you must specify at least two member interfaces.

D. The first step in creating an SD-WAN using FortiManager is to create two SD-WAN firewall policies.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 10:

When an installation is performed from FortiManager, what is the recovery logic used between FortiManager and FortiGate for an FGFM tunnel?

A. After 15 minutes, FortiGate will unset all CLI commands that were part of the installation that caused the tunnel to go down.

B. FortiManager will revert and install a previous configuration revision on the managed FortiGate.

C. FortiGate will reject the CLI commands that will cause the tunnel to go down.

D. FortiManager will not push the CLI commands as a part of the installation that will cause the tunnel to go down.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://fortinetweb.s3.amazonaws.com/docs.fortinet.com/v2/attachments/067f5236-ca6d-11e9-897700505692583a/FGFM-6.2-Communications_Protocol_Guide.pdf page 17


Question 11:

You are moving managed FortiGate devices from one ADOM to a new ADOM.

Which statement correctly describes the expected result?

A. Any pending device settings will be installed automatically

B. Any unused objects from a previous ADOM are moved to the new ADOM automatically

C. The shared policy package will not be moved to the new ADOM

D. Policy packages will be imported into the new ADOM automaticallyD

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.fortinet.com/t5/FortiManager/Technical-Note-How-to-move-objects-to-newADOM-on-FortiManager/ta-p/198342


Question 12:

What will happen if FortiAnalyzer features are enabled on FortiManager?

A. FortiManager will reboot

B. FortiManager will send the logging configuration to the managed devices so the managed devices will start sending logs to FortiManager

C. FortiManager will enable ADOMs automatically to collect logs from non-FortiGate devices

D. FortiManager can be used only as a logging device.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://help.fortinet.com/fmgr/50hlp/56/5-6-1/FortiManager_Admin_Guide/1800_FAZ% 20Features/0200_Enable FAZ Features.htm


Question 13:

View the following exhibit.

What is the purpose of setting ADOM Mode to Advanced?

A. The setting allows automatic updates to the policy package configuration for a managed device

B. The setting enables the ADOMs feature on FortiManager

C. This setting allows you to assign different VDOMs from the same FortiGate to different ADOMs.

D. The setting disables concurrent ADOM access and adds ADOM locking

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/7.0.0/administration-guide/66530/adomdevice-modes


Question 14:

View the following exhibit.

Which statement is true regarding this failed installation log?

A. Policy ID 2 is installed without a source address

B. Policy ID 2 will not be installed

C. Policy ID 2 is installed in disabled state

D. Policy ID 2 is installed without a source device

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which two statements about the scheduled backup of FortiManager are true? (Choose two.)

A. It does not back up firmware images saved on FortiManager.

B. It can be configured using the CLI and GUI.

C. It backs up all devices and the FortiGuard database.

D. It supports FTP, SCP, and SFTP.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.ansible.com/ansible/latest/collections/fortinet/fortimanager/fmgr_system_backu p_allsettings_module.html


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Free Share A00-240 Exam Dumps and Practice Questions and Answers

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Question 1:

Refer to the ROC curve:

As you move along the curve, what changes?

A. The priors in the population

B. The true negative rate in the population

C. The proportion of events in the training data

D. The probability cutoff for scoring

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

When mean imputation is performed on data after the data is partitioned for honest assessment, what is the most appropriate method for handling the mean imputation?

A. The sample means from the validation data set are applied to the training and test data sets.

B. The sample means from the training data set are applied to the validation and test data sets.

C. The sample means from the test data set are applied to the training and validation data sets.

D. The sample means from each partition of the data are applied to their own partition.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Refer to the lift chart:

At a depth of 0.1, Lift = 3.14. What does this mean?

A. Selecting the top 10% of the population scored by the model should result in 3.14 times more events than a random draw of 10%.

B. Selecting the observations with a response probability of at least 10% should result in 3.14 times more events than a random draw of 10%.

C. Selecting the top 10% of the population scored by the model should result in 3.14 times greater accuracy than a random draw of 10%.

D. Selecting the observations with a response probability of at least 10% should result in 3.14 times greater accuracy than a random draw of 10%.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Assume a $10 cost for soliciting a non-responder and a $200 profit for soliciting a responder. The logistic regression model gives a probability score named P_R on a SAS data set called VALID. The VALID data set contains the responder variable Pinch, a 1/0 variable coded as 1 for responder. Customers will be solicited when their probability score is more than 0.05.

Which SAS program computes the profit for each customer in the data set VALID?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

In order to perform honest assessment on a predictive model, what is an acceptable division between training, validation, and testing data?

A. Training: 50% Validation: 0% Testing: 50%

B. Training: 100% Validation: 0% Testing: 0%

C. Training: 0% Validation: 100% Testing: 0%

D. Training: 50% Validation: 50% Testing: 0%

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

A marketing campaign will send brochures describing an expensive product to a set of customers. The cost for mailing and production per customer is $50. The company makes $500 revenue for each sale. What is the profit matrix for a typical person in the population?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

The total modeling data has been split into training, validation, and test data. What is the best data to use for model assessment?

A. Training data

B. Total data

C. Test data

D. Validation data

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

What is a drawback to performing data cleansing (imputation, transformations, etc.) on raw data prior to partitioning the data for honest assessment as opposed to performing the data cleansing after partitioning the data?

A. It violates assumptions of the model.

B. It requires extra computational effort and time.

C. It omits the training (and test) data sets from the benefits of the cleansing methods.

D. There is no ability to compare the effectiveness of different cleansing methods.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

A company has branch offices in eight regions. Customers within each region are classified as either “High Value” or “Medium Value” and are coded using the variable name VALUE. In the last year, the total amount of purchases per customer is used as the response variable.

Suppose there is a significant interaction between REGION and VALUE. What can you conclude?

A. More high value customers are found in some regions than others.

B. The difference between average purchases for medium and high value customers depends on the region.

C. Regions with higher average purchases have more high value customers.

D. Regions with higher average purchases have more medium value customers.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Given the following GLM procedure output:

Which statement is correct at an alpha level of 0.05?

A. School*Gender should be removed because it is non-significant.

B. Gender should be removed because it is non-significant.

C. School should be removed because it is significant.

D. Gender should not be removed due to its involvement in the significant interaction.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

There are missing values in the input variables for a regression application.

Which SAS procedure provides a viable solution?

A. GLM

B. VARCLUS

C. STDI2E

D. CLUSTER

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Screening for non-linearity in binary logistic regression can be achieved by visualizing:

A. A scatter plot of binary response versus a predictor variable.

B. A trend plot of empirical logit versus a predictor variable.

C. A logistic regression plot of predicted probability values versus a predictor variable.

D. A box plot of the odds ratio values versus a predictor variable.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Given the following SAS data set TEST:

Which SAS program is NOT a correct way to create dummy variables?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

An analyst fits a logistic regression model to predict whether or not a client will default on a loan. One of the predictors in the model is agent, and each agent serves 15-20 clients each. The model fails to converge. The analyst prints the summarized data, showing the number of defaulted loans per agent. See the partial output below:

What is the most likely reason that the model fails to converge?

A. There is quasi-complete separation in the data.

B. There is collinearity among the predictors.

C. There are missing values in the data.

D. There are too many observations in the data.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Including redundant input variables in a regression model can:

A. Stabilize parameter estimates and increase the risk of overfitting.

B. Destabilize parameter estimates and increase the risk of overfitting.

C. Stabilize parameter estimates and decrease the risk of overfitting.

D. Destabilize parameter estimates and decrease the risk of overfitting.

Correct Answer: B


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